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ACCA F9 Discounted Cash Flows – Net Present Value
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Hey sir. The discount factor that is 1/1.1 for year 1 , can we take this to 3 decimal places(0.909) or should we take the entire figure(0.9090909090) as there is a minimal amount of difference in the answer. So for the exam purpose should I round it off to 3 decimal places or take the entire figure to get an accurate answer.
Round to 3 decimal places (or more sensibly, use the tables that are provided to you in the exam!).
We normally round the present values themselves to the nearest $thousand anyway (as I explain in my lectures).
This is not a maths exam, and in real life there is no such thing as an ‘accurate answer’ because all the figures used are only estimates anyway 馃檪
Hello there,
…and when exactly do we use the second annuity table?
thanks
When there are equal cash flows each year. It is explained in the following lectures – this is only the first one on investment appraisal!!
(And if necessary watch the relevant F2 lectures as well, because this is revision of F2).
Yes thank you i went through the Annuity and Perpetuity lectures yesterday.
You are welcome 馃檪
Sir, in reality, when discounted back we have to take into account inflation rate to get the present value, isnt it?
Sir, in example 2 one of our assumption is that we only look at cash flows not profit. What i understand is that the NPV is positive cash flow of the project not the profit, and the profit could be higher or lower than $6660, is it right ? And if it is correct, is there any case the NPV is positive but project results in a loss?
Thank you for your lectures.
In the long-term cash flows and profits will end up being the same. In the short-term then certainly there may be a positive cash flow and a negative profit, or vice versa.
I have done NPV calculations in the past in Excel and used the following formula; =NPV(Rate;CF1;CF2;CF3;CF4;CF5)-investment
I get to the NPV of 6’067
Am I making a mistake in my calculation or is this a “rounding difference”.
I know we won’t be able to use a computer but it will help to check my answers.
Thank you for your reply.
You have made a mistake. There are only 4 years of inflows not 5. The scrap proceeds are in 4 years time.
Thank you sir,
I see, I think I am not supposed to discount the scrap value of 10K.
Thank you for your reply.
Yes of course you should discount it, but it is in 4 years time – not 5 years time as you have written it.
Hello sir,
I have understood the process of discounting as in how it is done, but I am having trouble understanding why we do discounting. In your lecture notes, it is written that cash flows are discounted to account for the fact that money will be tied up on the project for a period of years and this will therefore either result in interest being paid or lost, but why is interest being paid or lost on tied up money a problem? why do we need to remove it?
In the example 1, the cash inflow from year 1 is $20000 but after discounting at 10% it is $18180 so that means $1820 (20000-18180) is the interest, but how does this $1820 get included in the $20000 cash inflow, i mean interest either gets paid or lost, right? we’re assuming that each year more and more interest gets included in cash inflow but how does it get included?
Also, thank you for the great lecture videos
Discounting is effectively removing the interest.
With interest at 10%, you would need to invest $18,180 to get back $20,000 in 1 years time.
If a project cost 15,000 now and gave 20,000 in 1 years time then it would be worth investing in the project (because 15,000 is less that 18,180). If, on the other hand, a project cost 19,000 now and gave 20,000 in 1 years time, then it would not be worth investing because 19,000 is more than 18,180.
It will help you to watch the Paper F2 lectures on interest and on investment appraisal, because basic discounting (and the reason for it) is revision of Paper F2.
I think I have understood it now. Thank you very much, sir. Your explanations are always brilliant 馃檪
You are welcome 馃檪