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ACCA F9 Revision Download F9 Question Paper
November 16, 2017 at 5:06 pm
sorry I used a guess of 10% and 5% but the answer looks a bit high. kindly explain
John Moffat says
November 17, 2017 at 7:42 am
How can I explain your figures without seeing them? You will know from my free lectures for F9 (and for F2) that any IRR calculated using two guesses is only ever an approximation, because the relationship is not linear.
May 12, 2016 at 4:35 am
Thank u sir
May 12, 2016 at 5:55 am
You are welcome 🙂
November 22, 2015 at 7:18 pm
Dear John, Thank you for the brilliant explanation of the question, am just confused about one thing in valuation of debt why do we use the IRR to ascertain the cost of the debt and not the risk free rate of return? and if we were given a cost of capital example 10% could we use that calculate the Present value of the loan note? or we still have to ascertain the IRR? sorry if my question is jumbled up thank you
November 10, 2015 at 6:02 am
Hi Sir, I did not get part b Gearing and financial risk point. Need explanation on that.
September 10, 2015 at 11:39 am
Steffietheresa, it is because the nominal value of each ordinary share is 50 cents. The other way is to divide the total nominal ordinary shares value of 200 by the nominal value per share of 0,50 which will give us 400 shares then multiply by 5,85. Hope it helps! 200/0.5*5,85=2340.
May 19, 2015 at 4:26 pm
Hi John, can you please explain why is it a multiply of 2 in the total M.V for equity (200 x 2 x 5.85) Thank you.
March 20, 2016 at 9:16 am
2 SHARES=$1 400 SHARES = $200
400SHARES @ $5.85
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