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fahim231 says

Hey John

I was just wondering if there is any way to calculate the APR backward? so for example, if we weren’t told the monthly rate in this example i.e 2% and we were just given the APR i.e 26.82%. Say we were only told this was compounded over a period 12 months, how would you figure out the monthly rate?

Great lecture by the way

John Moffat says

You would take the 12th root of 1.2682 and subtract 1.

So it would be exactly the same formula, but just used in reverse.

njivan28 says

Hi.Why is that if they charge a certain interest for a certain time,say a month,why is that you do not divide I rate by 365 and multiple n by 365?

John Moffat says

Because there are 12 months in a year.

In practice they more normally calculate a daily rate and then charge each month depending on the number of days in the month. In the exam you don’t unless the question tells you to.

akhalid93 says

In Quiz # 5 for Interest

Why he had added $ 6000 in our PV to get the derive the answer $69158?

Whereas in the video lecture we did not add $5000 with derived PV $41667.

Thank you

John Moffat says

Because in the test question the first payment is receivable immediately. The PV of 6,000 receivable immediately is 6,000.

The discount factor for a perpetuity give the PV when the flows are from 1 to infinity.

mary says

Hello Sir,

Can I ask if there is a formula for calculating example one? as if this is simple interest my learning books says the formula should be 200 + (200 x 0.15 x 4), when I apply this formula my answer is 24000 which is completely wrong…..

John Moffat says

No there isn’t a formula (or at least one you should learn).

The formula that you have written would be correct if there was only an initial deposit of 200. Here there is an extra 200 every year.

Also what you have written certainly does not come to 24,000 – think about it, how could it possibly be anything like 24,000? 🙂 It actually comes to 320.

akhilmathew39 says

Sir,

Why Do you multiply it with 1.10 rather than multiplying it with 0.1 and finding the total?

John Moffat says

It is the same – multiplying by 1.1 is the same as multiplying by 0.1 and adding it on.

daud4328 says

Sir how did you get 1.1941 in the last question?

John Moffat says

I show how on the screen – it is 1.03^6

You either multiply 1.03 by 1.03 six times, or more sensibly you get a scientific calculator with a button for x^y on it 🙂

daud4328 says

ohh, i was doing it like this 1.03^2, now i understand why it is 1.03^6, thank you very much sir

John Moffat says

You are welcome 🙂

Sammar says

What’s the calculation behind 1.10??

Sammar says

Sorry, it’s explained further in the lecture.

darchana says

Hi can you please explain this question taken from June 2013 exam paper.

A project has an initial outflow of $12000 followed by six equal annual cash inflows, commencing in one years’ time. The payback period is exactly four years . The cost of capital is 12% per year. What is the project’s net present value ( to the nearest $) ?

A. $333

B. $ -2,899

C. $ -3,778

D. $ -5926

The correct answer is option A.

2. An investment project has the following discounted cash flows($’000).

Year Discounted rate

0% 10% 20%

0 (90) (90) (90)

1 30 27.3 25.0

2 30 24.8 29.8

3 30 22.5 17.4

4 30 20.5 14.5

=30 =5.1 = (12.3)

The required rate of return on investment is 10% per annum.

What is the discounted payback period of the investment project?

A. Less than 3.0 years

B. 3.0 years

C. Between 3.0 years and 4.0 years

D. More than 4.0 years

darchana says

The correct answer for 2nd Question is option is C.

John Moffat says

You must ask these questions in the F2 Ask the Tutor Forum, and not as a comment on a lecture.

(And I assume that you have watched the lectures on both interest and investment appraisal?)

The ACCA does not publish past exams for Paper F2, so these cannot be from the June 2013 exam!

Rachel says

Mr. Moffat

After watching your lecture working through the couple of examples you had on calculating the effective interest rate, I used the same examples to calculate the effective interest rate using a formula that the Kaplan text provides to calculate effective rates: r = (1+i/n)^n – 1, where r is the effective interest rate and i is the nominal one, n os the number of time periods. Using that formula to calculate the effective interest for example 4, the formula would have the following numbers: r = (1 + (0.02)/12)^12 – 1 which results in an effective rate of 0.02183 or 2.018% (compared to 26.82% in your answer). I’m assuming that the formula is correct and that I am missing something. Any chance you can spot my mistake?

Thank you!

John Moffat says

The interest is 2% per month, and so the annual rate is 1.02^12 – 1 = 1.2682 or 26.82%

(You would only take 0.02/12 if 2% was the yearly rate)

Think about it – 2% per month could not possible be equivalent to 2.018% per year!!!

Hamlet says

Im getting crazy now..now you multiplied 1.06 times 5 on calculator..Please give me the details.

: (

John Moffat says

On my calculator you type 1.05, then press ‘x’ twice, then press ‘=’ five times. 🙂

Might not be the same on all calculators though!

Hamlet says

you are awesome, I was close to killing myself..: ) Thanks! Yes, I noticed it, sometimes I have another figure … If its acceptable than OK.

devikaramlugun says

Hello Sir, can you please help me with this question?

Loan taken = £2,000

Interest reate = 10% per annum.

The person wishes to make equal monthly repayments comprising interest and principal, over 3 yrs starting one month after the loan is taken out.

What would be the monthly repayment on the loan?

Sir can you please explain how to calculate this?

Thank you

John Moffat says

I don’t know where you got this question from, but I would be very surprised if it would be asked in the exam! 🙂

First you need to calculate the interest rate per month. If the monthly rate is r, then

(1+r)^12 = 1.10. So r = 0.00797414 (or 0.797414%)

Then you need to calculate the annuity discount factor for 36 periods, using the formula.

Which is (1 – 1/((1.00797414)^36))/0.00797414 = 31.18646

The monthly payment will be the amount of the loan divided by this annuity factor:

2000 / 31.18646 = $64.13.

(You had better check my arithmetic 🙂 )

Again, I would be very surprised indeed if this were to be asked in a real F2 exam.

devikaramlugun says

Thank you Sir.

This is a question from past exam papers. Year 2002 No. 2.

Do you think we can still get such type of questions in future exams of F2?

John Moffat says

You are welcome.

And no, although you are not wasting your time looking at the question, they do not ask that sort of question these days.

In 2002, Paper F2 did not exist – it was a different exam with a different syllabus (more statistical). Also, in 2002 there were no multiple choice questions, whereas now it is entirely multiple choice.

BELLO OLAIDE TITUS says

Sir, I’m also interested in this question due to nature of my job. How did u arrive at r=0.00797414? Also what is the formula used to get annuity factor 31.8646? Thank you

John Moffat says

For the calculation of 0.00797414, as I wrote in the previous comment (1+r)^12 = 1.10, so 1+r = the 12th root of 1.10.

The formula for the annuity discount factor is printed at the top of the annuity factor tables that is provided in the exam.

BELLO OLAIDE TITUS says

Okay sir…Thanks for the good thing u are doing

Erica says

Sir, what’s an ARR? and do you have any examples on this like the ones tested in the revision mock exam.

John Moffat says

Accounting rate of return is average profit / average investment as a percent.

You should see the chapter (and the lectures) on investment appraisal for examples and explanation.

Erica says

i do not see any chapter of investment appraisal in the list of F2 lectures.

John Moffat says

Try chapter 21 in the Course Notes and the lectures that go with it

constance says

i cnt download video lectures, hw cn i

opentuition_team says

you can only watch lectures on line!

siddiqui93 says

Hi admin I need your help

A Co adds interest monthly to investors’ accounts even though interest rates are expressed in annual terms. The current rate of interest is 6% per annum

An investor deposits $1000 on 1 Jan . How much interest will have been earned by 30 June?

The correct answer is $30.38

and I my answer is $ 30

John Moffat says

The interest is 6/12 = 0.5% per month,but it is compounding.

The amount owing in six months will be 1000 (1.005)^6 = 1030.38

Jim says

What is the accepted rounding in terms of decimal places for ACCA exams?

John Moffat says

It depends on the question – there is no rule.

For example, usually if we are calculating unit costs then we round to the nearest cent. If we are calculating total costs then we usually round to the nearest $.

For Paper F2, the answers to choose from make it obvious what rounding (if any) is needed. (Or, if you are doing CBE and a question asks you to type in an answer then it will tell you ‘to the nearest $’ or ‘to the nearest $100’ or whatever.

In later exams where you have to write a full answer rather then just choosing one from four, then unless you are told different then it is usually to the nearest $ for total costs and the nearest cent for unit costs. (Although the markers are sensible – you don’t normally lose marks for rounding unless it is ridiculous)

John Moffat says

Because you put your question under the lecture on interest, for interest rates the choice of answers or the wording of the question will make it clear – sometimes it will be to the nearest % and sometimes it will be to two decimal places.

Jim says

Thanks very much for this insight. Thanks again

John Moffat says

No problem 🙂

yasminf says

i still haven’t gotten, what’s effective interest rate

esther1986 says

Thank you. OT the lectures helped me a lot it was my second sitting for F2. Today I passed my computer based exam.

Accountaholic says

Hi there,

Can you please explain this question?

Hi there,

Can you please explain this question taken from June 2012 exam paper?

An investor has the choice between two investments. Investment Exe offers interest of 4% per year compounded semi-annually for a period of three years. Investment Wye offers one interest payment of 20% at the end of its four-year life.

What is the annual effective interest rate offered by the two investments?

Investment Exe Investment Wye

A 4·00%n 4·66%

B 4·00% 5·00%

C 4·04% 4·66%

D 4·04% 5·00%

The correct answer is C.

Thanks.

rubydinh says

Investment Exe annual effective return = (1+ 0.04/2)^2 – 1 = 0.0404 or 4.04%

Investment Wye annual effective return = (1+ 0.20)^0.25 – 1 = 0.0466 or 4.66%

Julia says

Ruby, could you write the common formula for annual effective rate? In course notes I found r = (1+i/n)^n -1, where r – effective interest rate,

i – nominal interest rate, n – number of time periods. But I am a bit confused, because according to the video lecture, the formula is without division into n (i/n)

Thank you

jalo27 says

Hi

Kindly elaborate the Wye’s offer of 20% at the end of four year

John Moffat says

You must ask this sort of question in the Ask the Tutor Forum, and not as a comment on a lecture!

However, rubydinh’s answer is correct 🙂

John Moffat says

Iftikhar: what elaboration are you requiring?

Accountaholic says

Hi there,

Can you please explain this question taken from June 2012 paper?

An investment centre earns a return on investment of 18% and a residual income of $300,000. The cost of capital is 15%. A new project offers a return on capital employed of 17%. If the new project were adopted, what would happen to the investment centre’s return on investment and residual income?

Return on investment Residual income

A increase decrease

B increase increase

C decrease decrease

D decrease increase

The correct answer is D.

Thanks.

rubydinh says

New project has ROCE = 17% >> This will make average ROI of the centre decrease

>>> Profit decreases, Investment increases

>>> Residual income (= Profit – Interest on investment) also decreases.

Hope that helps 🙂

rubydinh says

Oh I made a mistake. The new project offer a return of 17%, higher than the cost of capital 15%, so the residual income will increase, not decrease.

John Moffat says

Rubydinh’s final answer is correct

Since 17% is less than the current ROI of 18%, the ROI will decrease.

Since 17% is greater than the cost of capital of 15%, the RI will increase.

Musa Bin Masood says

iiiieeeeeeeLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLL !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! hahahahaha

really good lecture

John Moffat says

Thank you 🙂

onican says

Thanks a million again 🙂

123456lion says

the way he says ‘AGHHHH SHIT’ :p

John Moffat says

@123456lion, Sorry! 🙂

M. Osman Kamran says

very good, and regarding multiply 100*(1.02) twelve time by calculator is easy, but any body let me know how can i give the formulla in excel sheet to do the same?

coolgirl1984 says

@M. Osman Kamran,

100*1.02^(12)

levarshaw says

the last question wasn’t half yearly….he said every two months, I dn’t think I grasp that last ques.

desie86 says

oh okay for a year sorry.

desie86 says

why is the 1.03 to the power 6 and not 2 in the last example? because you said every 2 months.

Antoinette says

His reason for using 6 instead of 2 because it is every two months for one year which would be 6

smaguti says

I don’t understand the logic with APR.

vmchishimba says

very good notes and thanks.