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The actual revenues are taken in this video.
In Kaplan in some places the actual and target headings have been reversed. This video uses the original ACCA paper.
Quick question to the explanation for the average debtor balance calculation at 18:55:
Why do we take the target revenues of the depots instead of the actuals. I feel that this is not correct and cannot find any requirement to do so in the question. However, the sample solution as well as Kaplan exam kit solution does the same.
Can you please explain why? Many thanks.
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