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March 29, 2016 at 7:37 am
I’m struggling to perform the calculation on the last part of the call option formula, that is with the “e”. Can you please clarify one by one.
John Moffat says
March 29, 2016 at 9:04 am
Have you watched the lectures on normal option pricing, because I go through the steps slowly in that lecture?
June 7, 2016 at 1:15 pm
Instead of using e use 2.71828 that will make the calculation not confusing.
June 7, 2016 at 1:46 pm
I don’t really understand why that makes it less confusing. You must have a scientific calculator in the exam and it should have a button for e^x, and using that button is a bit faster than typing out e to 5 decimal places 🙂
June 7, 2016 at 1:58 pm
Maybe i did not understand his problem but from the way i understood it i think it has to do with him using his scientific calculator cause nothing can be confusing about that e .
November 22, 2015 at 7:49 pm
I find the most confusing part to define Pa and Pe. in this case maybe these variables are more straightforward, but in other cases like adandon, redeploy or expand they are less clear. Could you please provide guidelines how to define these variables.
October 8, 2015 at 10:48 am
d2 was .8727, why did we round to .88 and not .87 when looking for N(d2)?
October 8, 2015 at 12:05 pm
My mistake – I should have used 0.87 (or even better apportioned between 0.87 and 0.88, but there is no real need to do that).
May 26, 2015 at 12:40 pm
Hi Lecture how do you arrive to 0,.3888 I understand how to get to 1,2 in the table but not how to get to 0.3888
May 26, 2015 at 2:36 pm
You look to the row for 1.2 and the column for 0.02
I don’t know if you have watched the previous lectures on share options, but I spend time in that lecture showing how to use the tables.
April 11, 2015 at 1:14 pm
Why and how is the option in the example a call option? I did not really get the justification.
April 11, 2015 at 4:22 pm
Because you have the option to invest at a fixed cost on a future date (just like a call option for shares gives you the right to buy at a fixed price on a future date).
April 11, 2015 at 6:14 pm
Oh I get. Thanks a lot.
February 26, 2015 at 11:44 am
December 25, 2014 at 9:08 am
Can you please add an option to adjust the speed of the video? Although it is very informative, I find it hard to concentrate at a low pace.
April 29, 2014 at 2:13 pm
in the question 3 (DIGUNDER) of Dec 07 past question., how was the current price /PV of the project arrived at to be $28m? PV given in the question was $4m.
April 29, 2014 at 3:23 pm
No – the $4m given in the question is the NET present value.
Since the cost is $24M, it therefore means that the PV of the returns is $28M
(PS If you want me to answer a question then please post it in the Ask the Tutor F5 Forum – it is not possible for me always to read all the comments under lectures 🙂 )
December 2, 2013 at 8:04 pm
Hi John, I’m sorry but the question below confused me, could you please clear it out? thanks much appreciated 🙂
June 2012 Q1 part iii)
In the Model Answers the examiner answers it in the following way:
Price of asset (PV of future positive cash flows) = $2,434,000
Exercise price (initial cost of project, not discounted) = $2,500,000
Time to expiry of option = 2 years
Risk free rate (estimate) = 3·2%
Volatility = 42%
d1 = [ln(2,434/2,500) + (0·032 + 0·5 x 0·422) x 2]/(0·42 x 21/2) = 0·359 (in normal distribution tables is = .1368)
d2 = 0·359 – (0·42 x 21/2) = –0·235 (in normal distribution tables is = .0910)
N(d1) = 0·5 + (0·1368 + 0·9 x (0·1406 – 0·1368)) = 0·6402 ***What is the + 0·9 x (0·1406 – 0·1368 part??
N(d2) = 0·5 – (0·0910 + 0·5 x (0·0948 – 0·0910)) = 0·4071 **What is the + 0·5 x (0·0948 – 0·0910)) part??
***Shouldn’t it just be N(d1)= 0.5 + 0.1368 = 0.6368
**Shouldn’t it just be N(d2) = 0·5 – 0·0910 = .409
December 3, 2013 at 8:28 am
It is because the tables only have two decimal places when you are looking up. So for 0.359 he has taken 90% of the way between 0.35 and 0.36.
Similarly, for 0.235 he has taken half way between 0.23 and 0.24.
I don’t think you would lose any marks for not doing that (and therefore just going to the nearest) even though your final answer would be slightly different.
June 25, 2016 at 8:30 am
But I want to ask Mr tutor how the examiner estimated the risk free rate of 3.2%. Please can you calculate me this?
June 25, 2016 at 10:06 am
The question says that Nente pays interest of 7% which is 380 basis points above government base rate.
7% – 3.8% = 3.2% !
June 25, 2016 at 7:05 pm
Where in the normal distribution table the amount of 0.359 and 0.235 shows?
June 26, 2016 at 9:28 am
I have answered this in my answer two above.
November 16, 2013 at 8:32 pm
Sir in this example u have added the value to delay the option to the NPV. BUT there is a question of past paper DIGUNDER of Dec 07. kaplan in its previous answer have added the value of option (i.e 7.48) with projects npv (i.e. 4). When they have amended in new edition they just write as 7.48 which incldes 4m intrinsic value and rest is time value. please resolve my query whether the value of project would taken after addition or the value got from the formula is the eltimate answer?
November 16, 2013 at 8:51 pm
Without the option, the value of the project is simply the NPV.
If we do have the option, then the option itself has a value.
So…..the value of the project together with the option is higher. It is the NPV plus the value of the option.
November 15, 2013 at 11:48 am
is one expected to switch between discrete and continuos rates within such tasks (e.g., if the same risk-free rate given for project appraisal is expected to be used also for pricing of a real option)?
The difference isn’t likely to exceed a couple of bps, so my concern is mostly methodology.
Thank you very much for support,
November 15, 2013 at 11:57 am
Within the same question, yes – assume rates are the same for all parts unless, obviously, you are told differently.
November 15, 2013 at 1:40 pm
Thank you very much for your answer. Could you please comment in a little bit more detail on the following:
when I’m calculating the NPV, the rates given are assumed to be discrete, so the P1=P0(1+R1), etc, but when I calculate the value of a real option, I apply the Black Scholes formula, which in general case assumes continuous compounding . So my question was, in fact, whether I am supposed to convert the risk-free rate to continuous setting before pricing the option, or whether this can be ignored.
Thank you once again,
November 15, 2013 at 1:51 pm
No – the formula does the continuous compounding. (That’s what the ‘e’ part of the formula is doing)
July 24, 2013 at 1:06 pm
hello sir, if i may ask, why dont’t we have lectures on mergers and acquisitions? is it not an important area of the syllabus for the exam?
July 24, 2013 at 4:44 pm
We do not have lectures on all topics – more will be added as time permits.
Mergers and acquisitions are an important area – they are covered in the course notes (and most of the techniques involved are covered in other lectures).
July 24, 2013 at 5:50 pm
Hi John, you know some of us rely on these your lectures to understand some of these topics because most are new to us: i know your services are free and on behalf of all those using this site i would like to say thank you: but leaving some topics at this level of the course will mean making things difficult: it will prefereable the topics that were covered in an earlier course be left out than leaving out something new at this level
July 24, 2013 at 6:24 pm
Firstly, we do not pretend to offer a distance learning course. We provide everything on the site voluntarily in our spare time to try and help people. We make it clear that we are not trying to replace study texts.
Secondly, mergers and acquisitions are best not regarded as a separate topic for learning. As with so much of P4 it draws upon existing knowledge (there is not so much extra to learn at P4 than what has already been learned at F9) but expects more depth. This is not a topic that I actually lecture much on during courses I teach – instead we look at past exam questions and sort it out from there. Again, we make it clear on this website that it is so important to practice questions – at the very least past exam questions, but preferably using an exam/revision kit from one of the approved publishers.
July 25, 2013 at 8:57 am
thank you John for taking your time to explain things. may God bless youi
May 16, 2013 at 11:32 am
Thank you very much for a brilliant lecture.
I have a question. In share option lecture you expressed that the value of the option is what we pay for the option now. Is it same for the real option? Does it mean, as in example 1, we pay now $3.90m to buy option to delay – call option?
Can you please also clarify what is behind of the full value of project of $5.9m
June 2, 2013 at 10:10 am
It does not mean that we pay 3.90 now – it means that the option is worth that much to us. It makes the value of the whole project greater than it would have been without the option to delay.
April 21, 2013 at 3:41 am
Sir, just some clarification please. In June 2012 exam Q1 (iii) which dealt with delaying the project I noticed they used a different method to calculate N(d1) & N(d2), does that mean I can use EITHER method in the exam? Which is the preferred option?
Thank you –
April 21, 2013 at 9:27 am
The examiner has not used a different method. It is simply that the tables only have 2 decimal places for d and so he has made it slightly more accurate by approximating to a third decimal place.
Although it does make it a little more accurate, you do not really need to do this in the exam – just take d to the nearest 2 decimal places.
April 17, 2013 at 9:01 pm
It is certain that i will pass P4 now, brilliant lecture. Please can we have videos for the other options as well? and for (The valuation of acquisitions and mergers)?. This will be helpful a lot.
December 29, 2012 at 7:02 am
Thanks alot for the great lecture! May I ask where I could find the lecture for chapter 16(The valuation of acquisitions and mergers)? Are there any vedios are for example 1 (calculate the economic value added)?
October 20, 2012 at 7:46 pm
Sir..kindly late me know, in making decision of delay or proceed..i am going to compare present npv with value of call option???? that is $2m with $3.92
October 21, 2012 at 6:51 am
@syedwaqar, You don’t compare them. The option makes the project worth more than if the option did not exist.
September 29, 2012 at 6:20 pm
Thank you for the lecture.it was easy and straight forward but please could you tell me what the full value of the project will be compared to,as the video cut the decision aspect out.
June 20, 2012 at 11:08 am
Can you please explain me that how cash flows have been arrived in the given answer of Example 02 in Chapter 16…???
August 7, 2012 at 2:56 pm
@achalaand, sorry – there is a mistake (the synergistic benefit is 7 p.a. after tax, but the answer has it as 5 p.a.). The updated course notes have corrected this mistake.
April 17, 2012 at 7:54 am
This lecture was awesomeeee!!!…..However, can you please upload a video on option to abandon/redeploy please?:)
April 13, 2012 at 3:39 pm
thank you so much for the lecture, but i want to find out if all real options will always be a call option?
May 6, 2012 at 10:25 pm
Delay and Expand are Call Options
Redeploy and Abandon are Put Options
February 29, 2012 at 2:23 pm
Sir, pls was the conclusion/decision to delay the project based on the fact that it has a positive value. Thnx
February 15, 2012 at 5:43 am
thank you very much:)
this was very helpful
December 3, 2011 at 8:13 am
I could watch only part of the video:( There was some problem in the middle
November 17, 2011 at 11:03 pm
thank you, this was brief but clear
October 5, 2011 at 9:40 pm
N(d2) rounding off error? answers in the back of course notes has the right answer.
June 1, 2013 at 9:35 pm
Yeah, it should be 0.87 which translates to 0.3078 on the SND table
May 21, 2011 at 3:44 pm
hi is there suppose to be a part 2 for this video? thanks
May 21, 2011 at 4:46 pm
there is not part 2, if it was mentioned in the lecture, it was a mistake
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