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February 5, 2017 at 7:16 pm
In the question it is said that at time 0,we have $14000 available to us. So if we suppose do not invest the whole 14000, why would we ever leave the money idle and lose out on the 7% interest despite it being a loss when otherwise we would not be earning anything? But then again i think that if the money is borrowed money and 5000 is supposedly enough for time 1,we could just repay it, couldnt we? Thus preventing the loss i mean. It’d be of great help if you could clarify what i am misunderstanding here. Thank you.
February 5, 2017 at 7:21 pm
Oh the second question is quite silly. If 5000 will suffice for time 2, we have no reason to not invest the whole of the 14000 due to the positive npvs. Pls do ignore the second question.
John Moffat says
February 6, 2017 at 8:38 am
Cash held within the company is effectively being borrowed from shareholders (they are entitled to it as dividend and so by not giving it them we are borrowing it from them). Depositing it at only 7% when it is costing 10% to borrow is losing money and so is only sensible if by keeping it on deposit it could be invested better in later years. If not it should be given to shareholders.
November 10, 2016 at 12:23 pm
All I have done whilst revising this paper is learn mathematics. BODMAS, rearranging equations, logarithm etc. I never knew this paper required such as high understanding of maths!
November 10, 2016 at 2:03 pm
I would not really say that it is high level maths – BODMAS and rearranging equations is needed in many of the earlier exams, and the only place you need logs in P4 is in the Black Scholes option pricing formula).
October 17, 2015 at 2:09 pm
Why do not we constrain P in that way:
P?0 – implies that P could be more than one?
October 17, 2015 at 2:12 pm
something wrong with symbol
? is “more or equal” there.
October 17, 2015 at 3:43 pm
Why on earth should P be less than 1???
P is the amount put on deposit – not a proportion.
P>=0 is correct.
October 17, 2015 at 5:39 pm
ok, thank you, I get it P is in dollars!
September 26, 2015 at 2:57 pm
We assumed that 14000 will be borrowed amount, why we need to borrow 14000 if that can’t be invested completely in year 0 and we have to deposit rest of the amount for making loss?
September 26, 2015 at 3:15 pm
We don’t assume we borrow 14,000 – we assume that we do not borrow more than 14,000.
It might be worth borrowing money even though it cannot be invested at time 0 and makes a loss because it means we will have more to invest next year which could be beneficial.
March 7, 2015 at 5:46 am
I don’t understand why P at time 1 is treated as inflow.
March 7, 2015 at 10:45 am
Because the question says that money can be put on deposit at time 0 for one year. So it is an outflow at time 0 and then at time 1 there is an inflow as it comes back (together with interest).
March 8, 2015 at 10:58 am
August 5, 2014 at 5:42 pm
I can not understand why P will be back for year one
August 5, 2014 at 5:51 pm
P is the amount put on deposit at time 0, for one year at 7% (the question says that any capital not used in year 0 may be put on deposit for one year)
So it is like an extra investment and therefore given that our objective is to maximise the total NPV of the investments, we need to include the NPV of investment P. We know the outflow at time 0 is P so for the NPV we need to calculate the PV of the inflow in one years time.
August 5, 2014 at 5:56 pm
Thanks, but why in year 0 P is negative as cash outflow if it is the deposit
August 6, 2014 at 5:40 am
Because the present value of the inflow is less than the outflow (we are depositing at 7% but the cost of capital is 10%).
Usually we would not invest when there is a negative NPV, but here it could be still worthwhile because it means money is available at time 1 and maybe it could be invested better at time 1 than at time 0 in the main projects.
August 6, 2014 at 3:28 pm
May 4, 2014 at 1:17 pm
I don’t quite understand how you got the nov for p in the last part of the exam. I understand up to the part of 0.97263 but I can’t work out how you got negative NPV of -.02737?
May 4, 2014 at 1:18 pm
sorry that last figure should have read 0.02737
May 4, 2014 at 1:40 pm
There is an outflow of p at time 0, and an inflow of p(1.07) at time 1 (p together with 7% interest).
The present value of the flow at time 1 is p(1.07)/1.1 (dividing by 1.1 to discount for 1 year at 10%). This is equal to p x 0.97273
So the NPV is 0.97373p – p = -0.02727p
May 31, 2013 at 3:13 pm
I would have thought 5000a+8000b+6000c+p=14000 for the mere fact we don’t want to have idle resources when we could earn something from them. Because leaving it less than or equal to tends to allow one to decide to live resources idle.
I technically you are better off even investing the US$ that remains unallocated because even though the cost of capital is more than return you increase available funds for year 1 investment
alternatively in the above example only one would be correct in their assumption i believe that p=0 as the company stands to benefit more if all moneys are tied to projects than invested. Its interesting just how this simple example has initiated a thought process of possibilities in my head! I think i love this subject.
May 19, 2013 at 2:34 pm
Can anyone tell me that if I master the calculations…. will it be enough to get me a pass or should i do other things as well?? And if yes, what else??
May 19, 2013 at 5:18 pm
Are you talking just about capital rationing, or about the whole syllabus?
Although it is obviously important to master the calculations, there is a lot of writing in the exam and you do need to be able to discuss and explain things properly if you are going to pass.
In addition, the compulsory part (a) question will almost certainly involve writing a report and there are marks for the professionalism of it as well as for the content.
May 19, 2013 at 8:30 pm
Well I am talking about the whole syllabus!!! I am not sure yet about this paper.. and am wondering if i can do the calculations and write or analyse the numbers, they would be enough to get me a pass. I dont have to go overboard about getting everything perfect. Because I have heard that this is a really tough paper to pass. And thanks alot for your help.
May 19, 2013 at 9:08 pm
It is a tough paper, but if you understand the topics and you can make a reasonable attempt at the calculations (and you can write about what is happening) then it is not so terribly difficult to get pass marks.
May 19, 2013 at 9:15 pm
Well I do hope I pass it. And thanks for all your help. I guess I am just nervous about the paper.
May 19, 2013 at 9:20 pm
Be confident – you will be OK 🙂
May 20, 2013 at 2:40 pm
Just 1 more thing. If I complete all these open-tuition lectures and notes, will they be enough including some practice questions from ACCA Approved kit?
May 20, 2013 at 2:45 pm
We do not claim to have as much details as Study Texts, but there is certainly enough to pass the exam – provided you really do understand the topics, and provided you have practiced as many question as possible from Revision/Exam Kit, and past exam questions.
March 22, 2013 at 7:25 am
Why I can’t view this lecturer ? Please check if there’s any error. Thanks
June 8, 2012 at 2:39 pm
Thank you very much! Everything is so clear! I am just happy I found you!
April 26, 2012 at 4:20 am
Lectures on Discounting casflow techniques were well understood
January 8, 2012 at 7:03 pm
Great..my p4 teacher asked to revise f9 concepts of DCF..i didnt have the book or kit or anything….but the lecs here are so awesome that even i couldnt have revised better myself.
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