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February 21, 2016 at 2:09 pm
overall the lecture was wonderfull and clearly explained every thing but sir in example 7 how are we getting 2.1 times beta shouldn’t we rearrange the standard deviation formula of square root variance to get the the variance and then put it back in beta formula of Co variance/ variance?
John Moffat says
February 21, 2016 at 3:55 pm
As I say in the next lecture, it is extremely unlikely that the current examiner would expect you to know the formula for the coefficient of correlation and therefore there is not really any need to worry about example 7.
However, the formula for the coefficient of correlation is that it is the covariance of the investment with the market divided by (SD investment x SD market).
So rearranging the equation gives covariance = coefficient of correlation multiplied by the two standard deviations.
Therefore beta = covariance / variance of mkt = coefficient of correlation x SD mkt x SD inv / variance mkt
If you divide top and bottom by the SD of the market, beta = coefficient of correlation x SD Inv / SD mkt.
However, again, I really would not worry about this for the current examiner.
August 4, 2015 at 3:21 pm
December 5, 2015 at 8:28 am
Thank you 🙂
April 26, 2015 at 9:15 am
i want to know there are no merger and acquistion lectures????
April 26, 2015 at 9:27 am
Please post this sort of question in the Ask the Tutor Forum, and not as a comment on a lecture about something different!
There are no lectures on mergers and acquisitions because they do not involve any technical work that is not already covered in other lectures – it is approach rather then learning new techniques.
So instead I am making recordings going through some past merger and acquisition questions. One has already been uploaded – question 1 from the December 2014 exam.
May 13, 2015 at 12:47 pm
where can I find the recording which you mentioned above relating to the December Q1?
May 13, 2015 at 12:53 pm
Go to the main P4 page, and then click on the link “Updated. ACCA P4 Revision” (near the top of the page)
There are now 3 recent Question 1’s uploaded.
May 3, 2014 at 1:06 pm
As I understood, in Example 7 we assume that there is no unsystematic risk so the total risk equals systematic risk (well-diversified portfolio). Why do we use correlation coefficient if the systematic risk is already given? Or maybe when we are given the correlation coefficient, which takes into account market imperfections, the assumption is not applicable and we adjust both the beta (12/4 * 0.7) and standard deviation (12 * 0.7) by the correlation coefficient, right?
May 3, 2014 at 1:31 pm
There is unsystematic risk in example 7 – the total risk is 12% but not all of this is systematic risk.
The coefficient of correlation = covariance of inv with mkt / (std devn (inv) x std devn mkt)
Beta = covariance of inv with mkt / (std devn mkt)^2
So…..beta = coeff of correlation x (std devn inv / std devn mkt)
(Std devn of inv in all the lines above is the total std devn of the investment – i.e. the measure of total risk in the investment)
The rest of the answer follows from there.
May 7, 2014 at 12:22 am
July 12, 2013 at 12:54 pm
May 30, 2013 at 7:31 pm
I must admit though that i find it more interesting when the tutor takes you through the question answering, its as if you are in a visual class. Trully appreciated. keep up the good work.
May 30, 2013 at 8:10 pm
May 30, 2013 at 1:13 pm
plz do the solution of example 7
May 30, 2013 at 4:37 pm
You can find the solution to this (and to all the examples) at the end of the Course Notes.
February 27, 2012 at 12:44 pm
October 9, 2011 at 6:23 pm
dont manage to watch the full video
it stops around minute 17
can u pls check?
thanks in advance
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