1. avatar says

    Dear Tutor,

    Please what if we are are an Oil company and we were going to invest in a Ship project, hence which means the business risk may be different from that of the company. The project will be all Equity financed and the current WACC is 10%. We were also given a similar company’s data in the shipping business. BUT Finally, the examiner drops a bomb and say after careful analysis, the company found out that taking on the project will not change the existing risk of the company.

    In this case above, what should be the discount factor to use?

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      It would be impossible for the examiner to do this. The only way that the existing risk would not change would be if oil carried the same risk as ships. If that were the case then using the asset beta for ships would still be the right approach (because the asset beta for oil would be the same)

      If you see a question and you think he is doing this, then I really would read again very carefully :-)

      PS If you are asking questions of me, then it is better to ask in the Ask the ACCA tutor forum for P4. It is not always possible to check all the comments made below lectures – there are so many lectures – but questions in the Ask ACCA Tutor forums are always checked and answered.

  2. Profile photo of tinashe says

    I HAVE UNDERSTOOD THOUGH I MUST ADMIT ONE THEN NEEDS TO PAY PARTICULAR ATTENSION TO THE GEARING RATIO. That you need to understand like in the example above that when he says gearing ratio (debt to equity) of 0.4, it doesn’t mean 40% debt and 60% equity. I mean that was my initial confused assumption Admin. which would have also been in the exam too!

  3. avatar says

    I’m not sure about one thing…In Example 11 the asset beta equals to 1.57, equity beta is 1.80. What about the difference of 0.23? What does it represent if we assume that debt beta is 0?

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      Gearing makes the shares more risky and therefore the equity (share) beta is greater than the asset beta (which is the risk if there was no gearing). The fact that we assume the debt beta to be zero is irrelevant in that more gearing will always make a share more risky.
      There is no special significance attaching to the difference of 0.23.

      • Profile photo of euxuph says

        I am a bit confused about the using the asset beta in part a. as the question asked, “100% equity financed”, where I thought only equity beta has to be used. It got further confusing when equity beta was used to calculate the equity holders return in part b and c.

        my question is, why equity beta was used for calculation of equity holders required return in part b and c; why not in part a?

      • Profile photo of John Moffat says

        If there is no gearing, then the equity beta will be the same as the asset beta. (More gearing makes share more risky and therefore when there is gearing the equity beta is higher than the asset beta. However, when there is no gearing the equity beta is equal to the asset beta.)

        Since the equity beta measures the risk to shareholders, it is always the equity beta that determines the return required by shareholders. The equity beta was used in part (a) – it is equal to the asset beta since is is 100% equity (i.e. no gearing).

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