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Dear Sir, why do we take 70% x 55% of 160,000 Net Assets of Arta when calculating goodwill? shouldn’t we take the whole amount of 160,000 as fair value of NA acquired? if 60% x 55% of 160,000 is correct,then why don’t we do the same for Linda 70% x 300,000?
What is the 16.5% calculated below Arta NCI?
16.5% is an Indirect NCI. and it is calculated as 30% of 55% = 16.5%.
sir what about nci good will in maija in arta. Why should we not calculate nci at proportionate basis.
In above question …While calculating Maija’s share in arta u speak an anternative method to calculate this same thing with another method which is much simpler than the first one…BPP states first method but do examiner also likes the first method?
@rooman, It’s not the examiner who matters in that context – it’s the markers. But whether it’s the examiner or the markers, you can rely on the fact that they are totally familiar with both methods
Hi. Just a quick question here. Why you have not valued the net assets of Linda at the date of acquisition at fair value which would be $ 1.8 x Total number of shares and hence the goodwill be $48000 instead of your $108000. Can you help me with that kindly. Thank you.
@hamzahmoazzam, Does the question indicate that the fair value of Linda’s net assets is £1.80 x number of shares?
How much would be the amount of Linda’s Net Assets @Acq?
Should it be
– S.C: 200000(200000×1)
– S.P: 160000(200000×0.8)
– R.E: 100000
Bahram, Net assets are 160k because retained earnings are valued at $125,000 when Maija brought Linda, its about the acq dates.
but when linda bought arta, the net assets weren’t 160,000, because the retained earning when linda bought arta were 115,000. so howcome u came up with net assets worth 160k when they should be 150k, therefore goodwill 7500, and 70% of that is 5250 :/
the vedios are not working.
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