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hmm.. Why have we not charged any impairment of GW to NCI? Is it because we took the NCI of the Share Capital and multiplied it with the share price, so in effect it means that NCI is a % of the Subsidiary’s Net Assets? Please throw some light on this!
We have not considered the impairment at all! Why is that so?
Oops! I got it.. You’re coming to the impairment in the later part of the lecture! Thank u..
If the subsidary has a diffrnt year end date within 3 months dat of the parent??Den wat to do ….
ANd when If the period is greater than 3 months?
simple and straight forward lecture
easy to understand and good lecture thank you so much
Great lecture, I understand now..thanks, your style of lecturing is so unique and interesting, it keeps me wanting to listen!
I notice in the previous examples , regarding the goodwill working, the NCI is calculated as a % of the net assets consisting of share capital & retained earnings. However, in this question where the share price was increased to $1.65, 40% of the retained earnings was NOT included as part of the NCI value in the goodwill calculation, could you please explain why?
oh, i got it…..its that way because its at fair value!
My name is Alicia.
My question relates to the example 7 on page 41 (Ivona and Guido), were Guido shares were worth $1.65 immediately BEFORE the acquisition by Ivona. I am confused about W2 Goodwill calculation (Fair value of net assets @DOA). Why equity shares have value of $80000? It is not logical for me. Why not 80000 X $1.65 =132000? we are told that Guido shares were worth $1.65 immediately before the acquisition (@DOA). So far everything was clear and easy to understand and now I am a bit lost. Please explain. Many thanks
The equity share value is $80,000 as there are 80000 $1 shares in issue. The share price is only relevant to the calculation of the NCI investment (80,000 @ $1.65 * 40%).
There are only 80,000 $1 shares in issue.
Great lecture, penny starting to drop
i dont understand. for example 7 it says value of NCI is $55,000 in the question.how come for calculation of Working 2, the value of NCI came as $52,800? what happened to $55000?
@loopheichuen, Is this an Ivona and Guido example? If so, the same basic figures apply with the exception of me changing the basis of the nci calculation and for that reason I’ve changed the figures so that three different answers are arrived at.
Otherwise there would be a danger that you may think “there are three ways of arriving at the same figure and I’ll just concentrate on the one I find easiest”
You need to be comfortable in all three full, fair ways as well as with the proportional method
Double check W1 – Ivona bought 60%. G is the subsidiary not I.
Like ur ambition in life……….u to funny Sir.
CAN ANYONE HELP HOW SHARE PRICE $1.65 CAME
@omeraminmalik, It’s given in the question, Ex-8, continuation of ex 7 but with a fair value of $1.65!!!
So? is it FV of SNA or SNA?
Ivone is paying $100,000 / 42,000 shares => $2.08 / share while the NCI are paying $1.65/share…which would mean that Ivone would end up at consolidation with a G/w of 20,800, OA 250,000 ->Total assets 270,800? Shares 70,000, Ret ears 120,000 and NCI 80,800…i think I m getting it wrong somewhere…
Hi, at example 8/page 42..I can see why you are computing the G/W as you are doing it, but I don t understand at (w2) why you keep saying FV of SNA@doa if you are actually considering the SNA and not the FV of the SNA. In this example the FV of SNA @doa should be 80,000 shares x $1.65/ share, right?
the calculation is incorrect. the shares that is used in the question he always said it should always only ever be the parent company which is $70,000 and not $80,000.
@totalwork, Hi Totalwork. Give me a clue, which calculation? Which question?
I think you’re probably wrong, but I’ll do you the honour of checking
@totalwork, and please reply on “Ask the tutor” Otherwise, there’s a good chance I’ll miss it if it’s just on “latest posts”
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