1. Avatar of maat9 says

    your lecture is great…..but my question is why the impairment of good will charged to NCI in first example.of the lecture…… and plz tell me when we charged the impairment of good will charged to NCI?

    • Avatar of MikeLittle says

      Where the nci is valued on a proportionate basis, they have no goodwill and therefore any impairment is all ours.

      Of the nci is valued on a full fair value basis, they have some goodwill, so any impairment is allocated between the parent and the nci in the proportion of their different shareholdings.

      Does that answer it?

  2. avatar says

    Dear Sir, thank you very much for the lecture! It’s very helpful!

    One question, I am not quite sure why we have to add NCI in the CS of FP if the parents company do not own their part of the sub.

    Many thanks

    • Avatar of MikeLittle says


      It’s because they are partly responsible for financing the activities of the subsidiary. In addition, we add in the whole (100%) of the subsidiary’s assets and liabilities even though we don’t own 100%. We add the whole value because that’s what we control. The part that we don’t own (even though we do control 100%) is being financed by the nci. If we didn’t add in the nci, our Statement of Financial Position would not balance

  3. avatar says

    Using the Course notes provided, there seems to be a discrepancy on page 39. There’s an entirely different question (Remigjius and Ilona) there but it is not the one referred to by the professor… can some direction be given as to where I can find the question the lecturer refers to during his lecture.
    Many Thanks

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