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January 6, 2015 at 1:21 am
I don’t understand Mike, why are you increasing the profit first by 4,000 (revaluation) then again by 500 (the realisation of it for one year). That’s over increase, I think only the 4,000 figure should be there. Also the receivables written of by 3,000 are nowhere to be shown in the SOCI
January 6, 2015 at 7:13 am
I don’t have the question in front of me and I really, really, really do not want to have to listen to the recording so may I make a guess at answering your question. If my guess is not sufficient for you, then by all means, post again.
The revaluation increase (presumably 4,000) is debited to the TNCA and credited to a Revaluation Reserve (not to Retained Earnings)
As each year goes by, with the company now calculating depreciation on the increased value of the TNCA, it is considered to be “good practice” to release an appropriate proportion of that revaluation surplus back into retained earnings by way of annual transfer – debit Revaluation Reserve and credit Retained Earnings
But that increase in Retained Earnings does not represent double counting. It’s merely the recognition of the realisation that another year’s worth of the revaluation has now been realised (and is no longer therefore treated as unrealised)
January 6, 2015 at 12:50 pm
Thank you very much. Am I supposed to writte the number of the question?! I’m new here sorry.
January 6, 2015 at 1:07 pm
If my answer doesn’t resolve your query then, yes please, let me know the question name and the chapter / page number of the course notes.
January 7, 2015 at 6:23 am
I am confused, because it says above the lecture that it is question 2 of the June 2012 exam. You can find it on the ACCA website.
January 7, 2015 at 6:33 am
You’re right of course! I must have been having a senior moment 🙁
Christine, what’s your problem with Fresco?
Farije, have I satisfactorily answered your problems?
January 13, 2015 at 1:13 am
Yeah Mike I guess so, wish me luck. I’ll enter the exam on 17 Jan 🙂
June 3, 2014 at 12:58 pm
Hi Mike just a quick question on the the revaluation point. why do we need to decrease revaluation reserve by 500 and increase retained earnings by 500 please.
January 6, 2015 at 12:50 am
Because we have a revaluation surplus of 4,000, and the realisation for this year is 4,000/8(years remaining) =500
January 6, 2015 at 7:04 am
Thanks Farije but Ahmed’s question is dated 7 months ago so your (correct) response is probably of only marginal help!
IF Ahmed had really wanted a reply from me, he would have posted his question on the Ask the Tutor page!
I thought everybody could answer but anyway.
January 6, 2015 at 1:30 pm
Sure, anyone can answer (if it’s not on the Ask the Tutor page) – I was simply making the point that Ahmed’s question was posted 7 months ago – probably a last minute panic in reparation for the June 2014 exam
May 28, 2014 at 10:52 pm
Am looking at the earnings per share for june 12 question 2 part b. The number of shares am sseeing u got 90000 for the shares at start and 108000 for total shares but isnt the trial balance figure is at year end. Isnt the 90000 shuld be the yr end figure???? Please respond
June 2, 2014 at 5:50 am
Look at note (I) – the share issue has not been recorded in the share capital and share premium accounts – it has gone into a suspense account
May 22, 2014 at 4:53 pm
How did you get 50 cents for each share?
I could not find in the question.
June 1, 2014 at 8:34 pm
You’ll find the information within the trial balance. In the first line it says “Equity shares of 50 cents each”
June 2, 2014 at 5:15 am
Thanks Jens, I’ve found it. I was looking at the Singapore version question paper previously.
October 28, 2013 at 9:41 pm
Do Not Pay For Women
Date Number Period FRACTION WANES
I can say this needs excessive revision! High 5 Op. Tn!
October 30, 2013 at 7:58 am
It’s one of life’s lessons! The earnings per share mantra is something one frequently comes across, particularly when visiting a foreign city 🙂
June 1, 2013 at 10:30 pm
Can any one answer why does the PV of least payments which is less than the asset value had not been recognised as the leased asset. (PV of rental paid is 24745). According to the leasing standard asset should be recognised as the lower of fair value or PV of rental payement. Why this question this matter is not been considrered.
June 2, 2013 at 11:11 am
I don’t have the question easily available. When you say that the “(PV of rental paid is 24745).” have you taken in ALL the payments to be made over the life of the lease? Including any amount paid as a one-off at the start of the lease?
Otherwise, you are correct is your observation that the asset should be capitalised at the lower of the present value of the minimum lease payments and the fair value of the leased asset
May 22, 2013 at 10:33 am
I am able to play video ,there is an error saying server no found.
A studier says
May 20, 2013 at 8:17 pm
I am looking at the 2012 Fresco question on the exam paper, there is no mention of the £3 million credit controller fraud?
April 16, 2013 at 2:48 pm
opentuition will always be amazing
D N P F W
do not pay for women
September 26, 2012 at 11:28 am
September 25, 2012 at 10:09 pm
As usual my question still stands since the premises are considering the books as already adjusted for: Dr Obligations 2,000, Cr Cash 2,000 but not for Dr TNCA 25,000, Cr Obligations 25,000.
(I am saying this because in answers there is an adjustment for Dr TNCA 25,000, Cr Obligations 25,000 but none for this: Dr Obligations 2,000, Cr Cash 2,000)
Than what obligation did they debit in premises with 2000 and than with 6000 if they didn’t book yet for the leasing?
I m thinking that since we had to adjust for TNCA and leasing debt…we should have made the adjustments on cash as well…
Does it make any sense?
September 26, 2012 at 6:53 am
No, the 2,000 IS reflected. It’s in the figure of 8,000 lease payments. Fresco has NOT yet reflected the asset and the obligation. that’s why my first entry in my last post says “Undo that wrong entry” What has happened is that Fresco has ( presumably ) received an invoice but not recorded it. Instead, they have made 2 payments ( 2,000 and 6,000 ) to a leasing company but appear either to be treating it as an operating lease ( showing 8,000 operating lease payments ) or they didn’t know how to deal correctly with a finance lease transaction so simply debited the full 8,000 to a “Lease payments account”
Now, clearly, that entry is incorrect for a finance lease so …. now read my previous post.
That’s why we have to create an obligations account and record the finance lease asset ( and of course depreciate that asset as well as calculate the finance lease interest for the year )
Better? If not, post again!
September 25, 2012 at 12:23 pm
Maybe I should rephrase the question:
How is it possible to have the leasing invoice and payments already included in books but no asset purchased in leasing and no leasing debt. 🙂
When the payment of the first installment has been recorded (as we were supposed to assume that it happened), which was the balancing account? cash on debit and what on credit?
September 25, 2012 at 12:24 pm
@gaabita, *ammend: cash on credit and what on debit?
September 25, 2012 at 9:13 pm
@gaabita, Debit Obligations Account ( Finance Lease Creditor Account ). There is no asset included in TNCA because the company has debited the finance lease payments account ( Dr Payments under lease, Credit Cash 8,000 )
Undo that entry and start again!
Dr TNCA 25,000, Cr Obligations 25,000
Dr Obligations 2,000, Cr Cash 2,000
Pay instalment at end of year Dr Obligations 6,000, Cr Cash 6,000
But that payment of 6,000 includes interest at 10% calculated on the outstanding balance of 23,000 ie 2,300. So now …..
Dr Finance lease interest account 2,300, Cr Obligations 2,300
Now we have a total obligation of 25,000 – 2,000 – 6,000 + 2,300 = 19,300. This needs to be split between Long term debt ( > 12 months hence ) and Current liability ( payable within 12 months )
In addition, the TNCA which we have now correctly recorded needs to be depreciated for the current year
If not, as usual, post again
September 23, 2012 at 7:43 pm
I don’t have the question in front of me but …..
When cash is received, the double entry ( almost ) always will be to Debit cash – but where’s the credit? Sometimes Steve Scott has a suspense account and the bookkeeper has vredited the proceeds to the Suspense Account. Therefore, what we now need to do is debit the Suspense Account and credit Share Capital Account with the nominal value of the shares issued and credit the Share Premium Account with the premium received on that new issue of shares.
Same argument goes for the amount paid to the leasing company – we will already have credited the Cash Account, but we have ( from memory ) debited the rental payment to a Lease Rentals Account. So, undo that bad entry and then put through the correct entry which in this case will be Credit Cash and debit the Obligations Under Finance Lease Account.
Similarly, the invoice from the leasing company – I can’t remember – has it been credited to an Obligations Account? And maybe it has been debited to the Suspense Account. So now we need to credit the Suspense Account and debit the cost element to TNCA
As I say, I haven’t got the question in front of me but if this is beginning to make sense to you, then I’m sure you can figure out the entries for yourself.
If not ….. then post again and I’ll get the question 🙂
Hope that helps
September 24, 2012 at 10:11 pm
– the cash received for the shares issue (+13,5kk) – OK;
– the invoice received from the leasing company (principal + interest= 8.3kk) and the cash paid to the leasing company (deposit 2kk and principal first rate 6kk), these two leave me with a difference of 0.3kk
And if let’s assume the 0.3kk are already included in the suspense account and in the trade payable (although the suspense is exactly the amount for the share issue), I still don t get which was the entry already included in books for receiving the leasing invoice. It should have been leasing debt = trade payable, but there were no TNCA or leasing debts in the books, so what went on debit with the trade payables?
September 25, 2012 at 6:18 am
@gaabita, I need to look at the question. I’ll get back to you
September 25, 2012 at 6:24 am
@gaabita, Where have you found the figure of 8,300? I can’t see it in the question!
September 25, 2012 at 6:27 am
@MikeLittle, The asset cost is 25,000. 2,000 of that was paid straight away and therefore is not included in the finance lease interest calculation. So interest on the lease for this first year is 10% ( 25,000 – 2,000 ) = 2,300 and that’s the amount which is included within the Statement of Income for the year as a finance charge.
Where are you finding the 300?
September 23, 2012 at 7:34 pm
Could you please explain why we shouldn’t have accounted for:
– the cash received for the shares issue (+13,5kk);
– the invoice received from the leasing company (principal + interest= 8.3kk)
– the cash paid to the leasing company (deposit 2kk and principal first rate 6kk)
I am having difficulties in understanding which information is already included in books and which information is not.
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