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July 9, 2015 at 2:58 pm
hi sir in test question one y are we chargeing depreciation on the 240000
John Moffat says
July 9, 2015 at 5:57 pm
Because the cost stays at 240,000 for the first three months of the year, therefore there is three months depreciation on 240,000.
June 24, 2015 at 10:51 am
when we calculate the new depreciation per year after the revaluation , shall we consider the residual value of the assets?? we just use the remaining years divide the new value or something??
June 24, 2015 at 11:07 am
If it is straight line depreciation, then you divide the revalued amount less the residual value by the remaining life of the asset.
June 24, 2015 at 11:52 am
thank you very much!! by the way could you please tell me where is the answer of the test? I just cant find it .;)
June 24, 2015 at 12:01 pm
Please look at the contents page – it tells you where.
(the answers are at the back of the notes)
June 24, 2015 at 10:47 am
where is the answer for the test? sorry . I just got here.
June 24, 2015 at 11:06 am
At the end of the Lecture notes. If you look at the contents page, then it tells you which page!
June 20, 2015 at 6:41 am
Could you solve following question for me. Banjo Co purchased a building on 30 June 20X8 for $1,250,000. At acquisition, the useful life of the building was 50 years. Depreciation is calculated on the straight-line basis. 10 years later, on 30 June 20Y8 when the carrying amount of the building was $1,000,000, the building was revalued to $1,600,000. Banjo Co has a policy of transferring the excess depreciation on revaluation from the revaluation surplus to retained earnings.
Assuming no further revaluations take place, what is the balance on the revaluation surplus at 30 June 20Y9?
A $335,000 B $310,000 C $560,000 D $585,000
June 20, 2015 at 8:04 am
In future, please ask questions like this in the Ask the Tutor Forum (and not as a comment on a lecture).
The depreciation on the original cost was $25,000 a year.
On revaluation, there is a revaluation surplus of 600,000 (1,600,000 – 1,000,000).
There are 50 years left for the building, and so the new depreciation will be 1,600,000 / 40 = $40,000 a year. The is what is charged in the Statement of profit or loss.
However the excess over the original depreciation of 15,000 (40,000 – 25,000) is transferred from revaluation surplus to retained earnings. So the balance left on revaluation surplus is 600,000 – 15,000 = $585,000
June 20, 2015 at 1:51 pm
May 18, 2015 at 10:11 pm
Sir, a tiny misleading. always i did like Kelechi did, without T accounts. like what it should be and what it is. so difference is loss/gain. but in the last working, Revaluation account is an asset account? (not like “Revalutaion surplus” is capital account (Credit acc).
Because when we’re debiting with rev’n surplus (528K) we should also debit this account with acc.dep’n…this is then nonsense… it concludes that it is just new building account (asset acc.).:)
May 18, 2015 at 10:30 pm
It is not an asset account – I really do not know what you are trying to say.
Why on earth should we debit it with the accumulated depreciation? We debit accumulate depreciation to remove it, and credit the revaluation account. The revaluation account is being use to calculate the gain on revaluation.
(And there is never going to be a loss – in F3 we only will revalue upwards.)
May 13, 2015 at 3:46 pm
Hello, for this example 5, you say that we have a gain or profit on revaluation of 588,000. Could you explain how else I could know whether we would have a loss or a gain by merely looking at the question (or intuition) even if I would not know the exact figure of profit or loss.
May 13, 2015 at 4:28 pm
In Paper F3 we only revalue upwards – it is always going to be a gain. (Although you will still need to be able to calculate the amount!)
May 13, 2015 at 5:25 pm
yeah, thanks. I got the idea eventually. Normally as at 30 june 2003, the value of the asset should have been 3600000-1080000-36000=2484000.
But we have chosen to value the asset at 3072000.
Thus there would be a gain of 3072000-2484000=588000. Thanks a lot.
May 13, 2015 at 5:26 pm
May 4, 2015 at 4:51 am
Hi. I have a little bit of confusion on this statement from the lecture notes and would like further clarifications: “…and then excess of the new charge over the old charge should be transferred from the revaluation reserve to accumulated profits.”
May 4, 2015 at 7:01 am
We calculate the depreciation on the revalued amount, and this is charged as an expense in the Statement of profit or loss.
We then calculate what the depreciation would have been if there had not been a revaluation. The difference between the two figures is then transferred – Dr Revaluation reserve; Cr Retained earnings (accumulated profits).
May 4, 2015 at 1:55 pm
Ok, thanks for clarifying. Would this be done only in the year of revaluation and then no more? Thanks
May 2, 2015 at 9:56 am
I need help in this question.
A business purchased an asset on 1 Jan 20X1 at a cost of $160,000. The asset had an expected life of 8years and a residual value of $40,000. Straight line method is used to measure depreciation. The financial year ends on 31 Dec.
At 31 Dec 20X3 the estimated remaining life of the asset from that date is now expected to be only 3 more years, but the residual value remains unchanged.
What will be the net book value of the asset as at 31 December 20X3, for inclusion in the statement of financial position?
May 2, 2015 at 10:31 am
You must ask this question in the Ask the Tutor Forum and not as a comment on a lecture.
April 26, 2015 at 7:19 pm
hello sir. Sir, i am stuck in one question of depreciation. Below is the question;
A firm bought a car for $10,000 on 1 January 200, which had an expected useful life of 4 years and expected residual value of $2,000.
Th e firms policy is to charge depreciation in the year of disposal.
On 31 December 2011, the car was sold for for $3,200.
What amount would appear in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 2011, for the loss on disposal?
April 27, 2015 at 7:50 am
In future you must ask questions like this in the Ask the Tutor Forum – not as a comment on a lecture.
The depreciation is (10000-2000)/4 = 2,000 per year.
You have not typed what year it was bought in and so I cannot answer in full. There will be depreciation for each year (including 2011). The profit or loss on disposal will be the difference between the sale proceeds of 3,200 and the book value at 31.12.2011
April 27, 2015 at 8:05 am
Oh, sorry there was a typing error. The car was bought in the year of 2009.
Thanks for the kind response, will surely do that next time!
April 26, 2015 at 1:07 pm
Hello sir.Can you please help me,I didn’t understand something.
Isn’t depreciation calculated on the original price?And here we calculated it on the $3,600,000.But isn’t this the depreciated price?
Also,in the building a/c also we valued the building at the depreciated value of $3,600,000.Shouldn’t it have been at the original price?
April 26, 2015 at 1:54 pm
The question says that the cost was 3,600,000. Therefore this was the original cost.
And yes – since the depreciation is straight line, it is calculated on the original cost of 3,600,000 (until, of course, the revaluation).
(I assume that you have printed out the free Lecture Notes that are used in the lectures? Otherwise there is no point in watching the lectures.)
April 26, 2015 at 7:23 pm
Yes,I have the notes. Actually,I had misunderstood the 3,600,000 as the depreciated price,not original price!
April 9, 2015 at 1:08 pm
You are very wrong.
However if you are so sure then you should pay for tuition and then discover that you are wrong.
March 21, 2015 at 10:25 pm
Hello sir. Could you explain Test question 1 please ? Thanks.
March 21, 2015 at 10:34 pm
There are two ways of getting the same answer. One way is the way it is done in the answers at the end of the Lecture Notes, but maybe you will be happier with this way:
From 1 Jan up to 13 March (3 months) the cost is 240,000. So the depreciation for this period is 3/12 x 20% x 240,000.
On 31 March they sell some, so from 1 April to 30 June (3 months) the cost is 180,000. So the depreciation for this period is 3/12 x 20% x 180,000.
On 30 June they buy more, so the cost becomes 340,000 and stays at this from 1 July to 31 December (6 months). So the depreciation for this period is 6/12 x 20% x 340,000.
Add up the three workings and the total comes to 55,000 (as per the answer at the back)
(In future, it is better if you ask specific questions like this in the F3 Ask the Tutor Forum, then I am certain to see it )
March 21, 2015 at 11:28 pm
I certainly will Sir. Many thanks.
March 16, 2015 at 2:52 pm
I don’t understand why accumulated depreciation is included in the revaluation a/c?
March 16, 2015 at 3:44 pm
Because what we are revaluing is the net book value (carrying value) and the net book value is the cost less the accumulated depreciation.
March 16, 2015 at 1:32 pm
Stuck again here… Question 4 on the test.
70K – 7K = 63K depreciation charge 9K p.a.
Charge for 2000. and 2001 = 18k
NBV at start of of 2002 = 52k
we change useful life – 52k – 7k – 45k / 3 = 15k
Accumulated depreciation should = (2000: 9K, 2001: 9K, 2002: 15K) = 33K?
My answer is not correct, so I want to understand what exactly I have done wrong? thanks!
March 16, 2015 at 3:43 pm
It is not sold until 31 Dec 2003, so there is depreciation for 2003 also.
March 12, 2015 at 10:06 am
Hi, i’m stuck on Ex.5, when you calculated the second depreciation for the last 6 months. Why was it not calculated simply as: 2% * 3’0720’000 * (6/12).
March 12, 2015 at 2:39 pm
2% straight line is equivalent to spreading the cost over a useful life of 50 years (100% / 2%).
Before the revaluation, the depreciation was 2% x 3,600,000 = 72,000 per year, and since the accumulated depreciation was 1,080,000, it means that we must have been using the asset for 1080000/72000 = 15 years as at 31 December 2002. So at the date of the revaluation we had used it for 15.5 years.
Since the useful like originally was 50 years, and the question says there is no change in the remaining life, it means that 50 – 15.5 = 34.5 years remain.
So we must depreciation in future over 34.5 years which is 3072000 / 34.5 = 89,043 over year. (Only 6/12 for the year in which we revalue because it occurred 6 months through the year)
February 1, 2015 at 8:00 am
Could you please walk us thru the Test Question # 4?
To me, they made a loss but loss is not an option in the MCs.
This is my working.
Depreciation expense p.a:($70,000-$7,000)/7yrs = $9,000 p.a.
At the end of yr 2, the worth of the machine is $70,000-$18,000 = $52,000
Two years later the useful life was revised to 3 remaining years, and at 31 Dec the machine was sold for $30,000 (at the end of yr3)
($52,000-$7,000)/3 = $15,000
Machine worth by the end of yr3 = $52,000-$15,000 = $37,000
PnL of Sale = $37,000-$30,000 = $7,000 loss.
February 5, 2015 at 7:45 pm
At the beginning of 2002 the machine’s value is 52,000.
You have to depreciate 15k for 2002 and 2003 which would give you 52k – 30k = 22,000 remaining on the asset value.
30k – 22k = 8k profit
February 1, 2015 at 7:35 am
I’m confused regarding Example 5. The original cost of building was $3,600,000. and the revaluated amount was $3,072,000. Isn’t that a LOSS of $528K? Since the value of the building dropped.
Thanks in adv.
February 1, 2015 at 7:51 am
It is being revalued from its carrying value (net book value), which is cost less accumulated depreciation.
February 1, 2015 at 8:14 am
Hi Mr Moffat.
Thanks for getting back to me.
got it, thanks a lot.
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