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jokoo shamilah says
November 4, 2015 at 6:28 pm
sir can you help me with this num
the closing inventory at a cost of a company at 31 january 20X3 amounted to $284700
the following items were included at cost in the total.
1. 400 coats,which had cost $80 each normally sold for $150 each.owing to a defect in manufacture, they were all sold after the reporting date at 50% of their normal price.selling expenses amounted to 5% of the proceeds.
2. 800 skirts which had cost $20 each.these too were found defective.remedial working febuary 2013 cost $5 per skirt,and selling expenses for the batch totalled $800.they were sold for $28 each.
what should the value be according to the IAS2 inventories after considering the above items?
D none of these
thanking you in advance.
please explain to me the part 5% of the proceeds i can’t understand it.
John Moffat says
November 4, 2015 at 8:07 pm
You must ask this sort of question in the F3 Ask the Tutor Forum and not as a comment on a lecture.
November 4, 2015 at 1:21 pm
why don’t we balance for the 1400 in the accum depreciation account?
November 4, 2015 at 1:23 pm
You can if you want – the balance will be 1400. Then make the adjustment for this years depreciation and the balance becomes 4200.
However as I make very clear in the first lecture on double entry bookkeeping, there is not much point in taking a balance when they is only one figure on the account, and you don’t need to in the exam.
November 4, 2015 at 2:24 pm
thank you sir.
November 4, 2015 at 4:38 pm
You are welcome
September 27, 2015 at 3:34 pm
Got a quick question! In the lecture I’ve understood everything. Just one simple thing though, you said that when you have a loss on sale it goes to the expenses in the Income Statement but what if we have a profit where does it go? Does it go under Gross Profit?
September 27, 2015 at 5:21 pm
No – it goes under expenses as a negative expense.
The reason is that any profit or loss on sale is not truly a profit or a loss. It occurs because the deprecation expense in the past turned out to be too high or too low. If we have known from the beginning exactly what it would be sold for, then the depreciation expense each year would have been different and there would be no profit or loss on sale.
Obviously in real life we don’t know in advance what the sale price will be, and so the profit or loss on sale is really just a correction of the deprecation expense over the years.
September 28, 2015 at 11:54 pm
May 18, 2015 at 7:24 pm
Mr Moffat, ive read somewhere that IFRSs require businesses to charge depreciation under exact rules, namely 1st whole year of 50% of reducing balance method (to help new businesses in the 1st year to pay out the corporation tax) and other years are to be charged under direct method according to estimated useful life. am i right?
Also, one more question arose curiosity in me: if EUL is estimated too low then running expenses will be higher. So the profits could be manipulated and taxes reduced. so, 2 questions 1)who estimates the depreciation in-policy and is it controllable by tax collector bodies? and 2) what is more beneficial for ltd. Co.,ultimately, for example, having undervalued Assets or undervalued profits (if not only depreciation concerned, in general).
May 18, 2015 at 9:32 pm
First, please ask questions like this in the Ask the Tutor Forum – not as a comment on a lecture.
Second, you have read wrong! IFRS’s do not require anything of the sort. (What is required is what is written in the Lecture Notes and what I say in the lecture). Tax authorities have their own rules (which are different in different countries) but they cannot tell any business how they should charge depreciation in their accounts. (The tax will recalculate the profits for tax purposes, but we do not change our accounts – in our accounts we do what we think is most sensible). You will learn about this in Paper F6, but tax is irrelevant for Paper F3. (And I do explain all of the above in the lecture).
This answers your second question – the way we charge depreciation is whatever we think is most sensible, and will not affect the tax payable in the slightest. (The tax authorities do not charge tax on the profit we report for all sorts of reasons – not just the depreciation policy. They have forms that they use to adjust our profit simply in order to calculate the tax.)
I would also point out that it is not a question of over or under valuing assets in our financial statements – the value show in the Statement of financial position is never intended to show a ‘true’ value. We depreciate in order to spread the cost of the asset over its expected life.
I do suggest that you watch all of the lectures on depreciation again, because I explain all of the above in the lectures.
May 18, 2015 at 10:25 pm
Thank you! And, by over or undervaluing the assets i meant what are the benefits of charging more or less depreciation, sir? Because it effects both PPI (SOFP) and Running costs (SPL) and…i need more explanation:)what’s the reason…
May 18, 2015 at 10:31 pm
There are no benefits – we are not doing it to make a benefit (that is not the purpose of accounting – we are trying to show a fair view of what is happening).
Over the life of the asset, the total depreciation will be the same – whichever method we use.
August 11, 2014 at 5:55 pm
Thanks…..Mr John Moffat.
August 11, 2014 at 6:51 pm
April 13, 2014 at 4:44 pm
Kindly help with this question
On 1 October 2013 a machine was bought for $25,000. The depreciation policy for this class of
asset is 20% WDV (written down value). What are the amounts for depreciation expense in
respect of this machine for the year ended 31 December 2013, 31 December 2014 & 31 December 2015 ?
A- $5,000 for each year
B- 2013: $1,250, 2014: $4,750, 2015: $4,300
C- 2013: $5,000, 2014: $4,000, 2015: $3,200
D- 2013: $1,250, 2014: $5,000, 2015: $4,000
April 13, 2014 at 5:07 pm
The ‘trick’ here is that the question does not say whether to time apportion the depreciation, or to have a full years charge in the year of purchase.
If we were to time apportion, then:
In the first year, the depreciation will be 20% x 25000 apportioned for 3 months (Oct to Dec), so x 3/12. This gives a figure of $1250.
In the second year it will be a full 20% of the carrying value, so 20% x (25000 – 1250) = 4750.
You should be able now to calculate the third year yourself. However, this does not come to one of the four choices.
So…..it must be a full years charge in the year of purchase.
This means that in the first year it is 20% x 25000 = 5,000.
In the second year it will be 20% x (25000 – 5000) = 4000
You can now calculate the third year yourself and you will find that it is one of the four choices
April 14, 2014 at 4:01 pm
July 6, 2015 at 6:17 am
Thanks for the answer to the above question.
What approach would you kindly suggest for one to use, ie between “timing” and whole year’s deprn when not specified in an exam question. I’m asking since one would wanna avoid wasting time trying the one “method” only for the other one to be correct, as my colleague and I just discovered from your answer. Regards
July 6, 2015 at 8:21 am
I don’t know where Mahrukh found the question, but in the real exam you always time apportion the depreciation unless the questions says to do different.
March 28, 2014 at 2:42 pm
Hi, where can I get practice questions for F3?
March 28, 2014 at 2:54 pm
You need to buy a Revision/Exam kit from one of the approved publishers.
March 15, 2014 at 7:49 pm
Good Afternoon, why do we balance the Accumulated Depreciation a/c from the 2nd year? (That’s @ the 8mins 27secs point) How come we don’t balance for.the 1st yr (1400)? Thanks!!
March 16, 2014 at 10:03 am
There is no need to strike a balance when there is only one figure there.
March 16, 2014 at 11:38 am
Okay, Sir. Thanks!!
March 19, 2013 at 8:40 am
March 19, 2013 at 9:05 am
November 12, 2013 at 7:29 am
I suppose our dear Maazalimughal meant to say “Thumbs up for John Moffat” haha
January 1, 2013 at 8:55 am
Sir my google chrome does not work properly because shock waves player, plug in becomes crash, when i start my lecture,it has been disturbing me for last 4 days.
what i do.
Govar Karim says
January 9, 2013 at 4:11 pm
use a different browser.
M. Osman Kamran says
November 25, 2012 at 9:36 am
very good explanation, but if we create a separate account for each car, then it will increase the number of accounts in the balance sheet and if one account for all car and the same for accumulated depreciation, then we will not have the the price of each car for each year.
November 25, 2012 at 9:46 am
@M. Osman Kamran, But we don’t need ‘the price of each car for each year’.
We only have one car account. Many companies keep an asset register with details of each individual asset, but this is nothing to do with the double entry.
Miss A.. says
August 13, 2012 at 1:05 pm
July 17, 2012 at 5:01 pm
thank you opentuition
June 18, 2012 at 9:16 pm
It really is beautifully simple how you explain it!
June 10, 2012 at 5:23 am
April 16, 2012 at 5:00 am
very helpful thank you
June 7, 2011 at 6:25 pm
I wonder if anyone can recoommend any accounting calculations practices book for F2 abd F3, please
January 30, 2012 at 4:06 am
@diamond10, me too. I try to find any accounting calculations practices book for F3 too. If you found, pls kindly share or recommend me…. Thxs!
June 18, 2012 at 9:04 pm
@jkhann, please lmk too
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