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ACCA P4 The Cost of Capital (part 3)

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ACCA P4 lectures Download P4 notes

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Comments

  1. annette says

    June 22, 2015 at 4:53 pm

    Hi John,

    In lecture The Cost of Capital (part 3) – example 10, should the annuity for 5% would have been 5.076? In the lecture you have used 4.917 which is 6%, can you please review this?

    Many thanks for the great lectures and sense of humour(::)!!.

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  2. beatrice says

    February 17, 2015 at 12:06 pm

    Hi thanks ive never come across such an elaborate lecturer.

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  3. sogan0 says

    January 26, 2015 at 4:09 pm

    Hi

    i dont get these gueses from 10% and 5% please explain

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    • John Moffat says

      January 26, 2015 at 4:53 pm

      Which bit don’t you get?

      In order to calculate an IRR (whether it is for project appraisal or for calculating a cost of debt) we need to guess at two interest rates (any two guesses) and then approximate between them.

      If you are not familiar with calculating an IRR, then the F2 and F9 lectures may help you.

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      • sogan0 says

        January 28, 2015 at 9:06 am

        so can i stick to 5% and 10% on guesses

      • John Moffat says

        January 28, 2015 at 9:08 am

        Yes – no problem 馃檪

  4. Mathias says

    July 20, 2014 at 4:01 pm

    I am unable to view the video, despite deleting the cookies. I also loaded the latest Adobe Flash player.

    However I was able to view the video on another PC.

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    • admin says

      July 20, 2014 at 6:10 pm

      No idea why your pc fails to load lectures,, try another browser. Or contact your Internet provider?

      Log in to Reply
  5. ace91 says

    April 18, 2014 at 2:17 am

    Hi sir.This one is regarding MACAULAY DURATION . in bpp text it says when yield decreases duration increases but in an example i did(opentuition notes.ch8.Example4) lowering the yield has now effect on the duration.Why is that ?

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  6. ace91 says

    April 17, 2014 at 8:18 pm

    hi , I know this is a noob question at this level but why in example 10 when i use 10% and 15% to calculate IRR i get the different value in comparison to what you have used in the question. I recall this has something to do with using one possitive npv and one negative for IRR calculation.But please would u be kind enough to elaborate.Thanks

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    • John Moffat says

      April 18, 2014 at 6:09 am

      You can use any two guesses to calculate the IRR, but because the relationship is not linear then different guesses will give slightly different answers.
      This is not a problem in the exam – you get full marks.

      Ideally we would have one positive NPV and one negative, but even that is not essential .

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  7. vinitha says

    February 6, 2014 at 10:56 am

    Please help…..i keep on getting this message when i click play on the vedio “The page you tried to find does not exist, please choose below:”

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    • John Moffat says

      February 6, 2014 at 12:21 pm

      The video is working fine – it must be a problem at your end.
      If you go to the support page you should find the solution for your device.
      The link is: https://opentuition.com/support/

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  8. kellyldr says

    November 27, 2013 at 2:05 am

    In example 10 the an annuity for 6% was incorrectly used that is 4.917. It should be at 5% for 6yrs at 5.076 as the disc rate for 5% in 6 yrs was used. This is where IRR was being calculated for cost of Debt to the company. I know the concept remains the same and was just an error but for future reference i thought i should just mentioned it… the IRR was actually 7.5% not much of a difference any ways

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    • John Moffat says

      November 27, 2013 at 6:38 am

      Thanks – I will check the lecture tonight (and the answer at the back of the course notes) and if it is wrong, then I will have it corrected. (I cannot check at the moment because I am away from home).

      I do apologise if I have made a mistake.

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      • kellyldr says

        November 27, 2013 at 12:10 pm

        Your welcome… But mistakes happen sometimes. I only mentioned it so for future reference. However, when i looked at the last lecture on Cost of capital, that is the lecture on EXAMPLE 10 only. The correct rate was used there. But i must say your lecture help me understand the Cost of Capital so well. Thanks a mil. You are doing a great Job. Thanks again.

  9. papiasu says

    August 16, 2013 at 10:32 am

    Thank you sir

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  10. moeedaftab@hotmail.com says

    April 17, 2013 at 6:23 pm

    thank you sir John!

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    • moeedaftab@hotmail.com says

      April 17, 2013 at 6:25 pm

      I lik yor teachering styel

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  11. nickneouk says

    November 9, 2012 at 4:57 pm

    Excellent lecture! Thank you

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  12. nyandoro says

    September 25, 2012 at 12:42 pm

    I can’t play the videos on my iPad. Does anyone know why and how I can resolve this?

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    • admin says

      September 25, 2012 at 1:13 pm

      lectures do play on the ipad. maybe your internet is behind a firewall. contact your internet provider for check this for you

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  13. gellisk says

    August 22, 2012 at 3:55 pm

    Its very useful to students, but videos are do not opened arising the some errors, please rectify
    thank u

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    • admin says

      August 22, 2012 at 4:00 pm

      @gellisk, videos play fine

      Your PC or your internet connection is the problem

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      • lyford says

        August 31, 2012 at 1:08 pm

        @admin, am not able to view video lectures it reads server not found

      • admin says

        August 31, 2012 at 1:27 pm

        @lyford, you are behind a firewall, ask your internet provider for help

  14. niffy99 says

    May 24, 2012 at 6:10 pm

    Impressive revision,

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  15. utn9 says

    April 4, 2012 at 3:32 pm

    Another great work by John with a negligible error. Thanks a lot sir.

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  16. walshan says

    February 25, 2012 at 8:55 pm

    Were these errors noted and accepted by OT, and if so was the video corrected?

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    • John Moffat says

      April 4, 2012 at 5:13 pm

      @walshan, what errors?

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  17. 1708116acca says

    November 30, 2011 at 8:10 am

    in the example of 9, he calculated the Ke by using the market value post dividend. is there anything wrong? the formula shows that the market value of shares in it should be ex div.

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    • John Moffat says

      April 4, 2012 at 5:12 pm

      @1708116acca, post dividend = ex div

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  18. mwachilale says

    September 18, 2011 at 4:20 pm

    Good staff. The error noted on Annuity factor for 6years at 5%.

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    • jarboshi says

      October 13, 2013 at 7:30 pm

      yes, it is on example 10, but it only makes difference of 0.01% in the answer. I got 13.55% as WACC

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  19. p4nitemare says

    September 9, 2011 at 1:37 am

    yeap very good revision. a genuine mistake indeed.

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  20. rballiram says

    July 21, 2011 at 2:02 am

    the discount factor for the annuity at 6 years for 5% is 5.076.
    in this answer where they they get 4.917?

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    • ravisnayanar says

      August 26, 2011 at 3:18 pm

      it’s just a genuine mistake. he took 6%, 6 years…

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