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ACCA P4 Forward Rate Agreement and Interest Rate Guarantees

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ACCA P4 lectures Download P4 notes


Reader Interactions

Comments

  1. stephenlyimo says

    April 12, 2017 at 1:32 pm

    Dear Mr John.

    in regard to P4 acca December 2013 Qn 2 (Awan Co). in FRA, when the rate increases from 4.09% by 0.9%, the 20 basis has been reduced, (rate used in soln is 4.79%=4.09%+0.9%-0.2%)

    but in the second part where by rate is decreasing by 0.9% from 4.09% the soln shows that 20 basis were note reduced (rate used on 4.09%-0.9%=3.19%)

    why is 0.9% not reduced in finding the second rate?

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    • stephenlyimo says

      April 12, 2017 at 1:34 pm

      Sorry Mr John….sorry for this…. i over looked… it is well solved

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      • John Moffat says

        April 12, 2017 at 5:21 pm

        No problem, and you are welcome 馃檪

  2. cyh says

    November 6, 2016 at 2:20 pm

    when bank quote FRA, the FRA rate is refer to LIBOR rate or the total borrowing rate of company?

    Because i refer to BPP text book, the FRA is refer to LIBOR so it make me confuse.

    for eg, the company can borrow at LIBOR (currently is 4%) + 1%, if the FRA rate is 5.5 %,
    which mean the effective interest rate is 5.5% or 6.5%?

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    • John Moffat says

      November 6, 2016 at 7:14 pm

      It depends. If it is a direct over-the-counter quote from the bank, then the bank will have included the 1% already and so the effective rate will be the 5.5% that they quote.

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  3. taurus says

    August 21, 2016 at 12:49 pm

    In forward rate agreements, would we not pay a premium to the bank like in the case of interest rate guarantee ?
    And then what is the difference between both of the hedging options?

    Please let me know.

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    • joskof01 says

      August 21, 2016 at 4:05 pm

      A premium is paid to the bank only when you opt for an option. With FRA, the borrower and bank agrees on a fixed interest rate and do not have the option to exercise (when interest rate is unfavourable)or allow it to lapse (when interest rate is favourable).

      You only receive a compensation from the bank when the prevailing (transaction date) interest rate increase above agreed (fixed) interest rate. Conversely, you pay the bank a compensation when the prevailing interest rate is lower than the agreed interest rate.

      With IRG, you have the flexibility to exercise or allow the option to elapse based on the change of the interest rate. Hence you are required to pay a premium to the bank.

      In the nutshell, we would not pay a premium to the bank under FRA.

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  4. mansoor says

    May 16, 2016 at 8:36 pm

    the terms cap and floor seem redundant in the sense that when i buy a put option when i want to borrow, i am, by default putting a cap. and thus “traded caps” and “traded floors” are the same as traded options for put and traded options for calls respectively.

    wd this be a correct way to summarize caps and floors?

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    • John Moffat says

      May 16, 2016 at 9:28 pm

      Correct 馃檪

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  5. Vione says

    December 1, 2015 at 3:19 pm

    great lecture!!!! thank you sir!!!!!

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    • John Moffat says

      December 1, 2015 at 4:30 pm

      I am pleased you found it helpful 馃檪

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  6. groovykikko says

    June 6, 2015 at 1:32 pm

    I think this is linked to the wrong lecture (the previous interest rate risk one is playing again). It’s the same for both my android tablet and iphone. Thanks.

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    • opentuition_team says

      June 6, 2015 at 4:42 pm

      thanks. it should be oK now.

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  7. mwende1 says

    May 19, 2015 at 1:39 pm

    Good job…so simply and straightly put forth

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  8. sogan0 says

    March 18, 2015 at 11:46 am

    good lecture lookign forward to the tricky part

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  9. Fatma says

    October 10, 2014 at 2:42 am

    Could you please explain the following terminologies in FRAs:
    1. Trade date/ dealt date
    2. Spot date
    3. Fixing date

    Thank you in advance.

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    • John Moffat says

      October 10, 2014 at 12:25 pm

      The trade date is the date we arrange the FRA. The spot date is when the arranging is finalised (usually 2 days after the trade date, but this is not a fixed rule). The fixing date is usually 2 days before the settlement date ( the date the loan starts) and is the day when the payment to be transferred if fixed.

      I would be very surprised if you were tested on these terms in P4 – it is not that sort of exam.

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  10. deepmaharaj says

    August 19, 2013 at 9:06 am

    God bless

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  11. htung00 says

    October 21, 2012 at 8:39 am

    In the FRA agreement example the difference is setteled with the bank at the start of the loan and interest would be payble at the end.

    For loans with longer time periods the difference in timing might have a significant effect, would we have to take into account this when calculating the effective interest? Or is it unlikely to be asked of us in the exam?

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    • John Moffat says

      October 21, 2012 at 6:51 pm

      @htung00, That is usually the case (settle at the beginning and interest at the end) but it really depends on the agreement with the bank. It is unlikely to be relevant in the exam (it never has been!) but it would be good to mention it if you get the chance.

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  12. sheda100 says

    February 22, 2012 at 11:50 am

    Sir, pls can u explain why we didnot calculate IRG for the interest rate of 8%.

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    • utn9 says

      May 2, 2012 at 8:33 pm

      @sheda100, You can have the answer in the video lecture.

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    • rene12311 says

      May 29, 2013 at 5:48 pm

      since IRG is an arrangement with the bank whereby the bank fix a maximum interest rate, therefore the company could enjoy the actual low interest payment but with a premium payment indeed all time, like a option scheme.

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      • John Moffat says

        May 29, 2013 at 7:24 pm

        Yes – it is just like an option.

      • sogan0 says

        March 18, 2015 at 11:46 am

        if the int rate falls the IRG is irrelevant – actually a benefit to you as you would pay less, only pay the actual interest and the premium charge

  13. Saline says

    October 28, 2011 at 9:12 am

    Sir, you have told that you will tell the reason why to divide always by 400 when calculating premium. Can you please explain why to do so ?

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    • arslanathar says

      December 2, 2011 at 7:43 am

      @Saline, It is explained in the next lecture i believe. ” intrest rate futures 1 “

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