Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for March and June 2025 exams.
Get your discount code >>

Reader Interactions

Comments

  1. Hi Sir,

    If past dividend (say) being given: Earliest 20000, and then on 21000, 30000, 25000, and latest 27000…………..then as you explained, to calculate the avg growth in dividends p.a. only earliest of 20000 and latest 27000 are concerning issue? not 20000 and 30000; Right sir?

  3. Dear John, many thanks for your excellent lectures, I have been watching the videos in order and found them so valuable.Best I’ve seen, I can’t imagine my F9 studies without your teaching.

  4. Hi John,

    I wanted to ask is there a direct or inverse relationship between the shareholders’ required rate of return and the market value of shares? Could you please illustrate this with the help of an example?

    Thanks a ton!

    • The market value is the present value of future dividends, discounted at the shareholder required rate of return
      This is all explained – with examples – in the lectures that go with Chapter 15 of our free lecture notes.
      (The lectures are a complete course and are supposed to be watched in order!)

  5. Hello sir
    I have just startrd watching this video and I feel my heads going round in circles.
    sir ealier you have stated that the MV of shares is determined using the future expected divdends & Re. But in this video, u hv said that the Re is determined using the future expected dividends and the MV quoted in the S/E.
    but how can we do that if we need the Re in the first place to determine the market value?
    or is the application of growth model just suitable for unquoted co.’s?
    And if so, how is the share price of quoted co.’s determined?
    Also,since one of the many limitations of the growth model is that the Re used in the computation of MV is that it is just an estimate,i figured that there must be a certain way of estimating it rather than just working the formula backwards.
    I fear I am getting everything jumbled up 🙁

    • My opinion:

      if think you have to take it like this, in the first lecture on valuation of securities, you were shown how to calculate mkt price, which in its simplest way is the dividend divided by the expected rate of return (Re).The unknown was the market price.

      As stated in page 83 of lecture notes,mkt price is determined by shareholders, the price at which they wud be prepared to pay on stock exchange.

      Lets say you have a share of $1 nominal value, which gives you a dividend of 20c the year. The rate of interest is 10%. At what rate would a person normally agree to buy your share at most? Answer is nearly to the same rate at which you would be earning interest at the bank. I dnt think you would sell it for 1$, because you are getting 20% off it (20c / $1). $1 would earn an interest of 10c at the bank. People would not buy your share for $3, earning just 20c as dividend coz the bank would earn the an interest of 30p.

      At most, people would be willing to pay X$ which would earn them a dividend of 20c at a rate of return similar to the bank (10%), hence, would pay 20c/10% = $2 at most for the share because it would get them equivalent return to bank.

      Now you yourself, would you be ready to pay $3 for a share which earns you 20c whilst the bank offers an interest of 10% per annum? Answer is obviously no. However, if the share is 1.95$, you would probably go for the share instead of the bank. The maximum amount you would be likely to pay would be the equivalent of rate of interest earned throuh the bank which is $2.

      The rate of return is not to be confused with the rate of interest. People may expect a higher return by investing in shares as compared to bank interest, given the risk associated.

      Now, if you know the market price and the dividend, just find the unknown, that is the expected rate of return

      Hope this answers your concerns

      • It does actually:)
        it was the bank interest rate portion I was missing out.
        let me still clarify- so what your saying is-the share price is decided keeping in mind the int. rate and what rate of return the shateholders are likely to require because of the present interest rate. And then setting a price thats not going to make the co. lose out but is attractive to shareholders at the same time right?
        thanks a bunch!!!!

      • This sort of question really belongs in the Ask the Tutor Forum rather than as a comment on a lecture!

        Shareholders determine the price of the shares based on the dividends they expect and the return they require.

        For a quoted company we know what the share price is, and so we can ‘work backwards’ to determine what return shareholders are requiring and therefore what the company needs to give them (and therefore what return the company needs to earn from projects in order to satisfy the shareholders).

  7. Dear Sir,
    Can you help me with this question?…….
    A Co has just paid a dividend of 23 cents and it is expected to remain the same next year and increase by 3 percent thereafter. What is the current market value of the share if the required return is 12 percent? The answer given is 2.56….I don’t get it.

    • In future please ask questions like this in the Ask the Tutor Forum – not as a comment on a lecture!

      We use the formula from the formula sheet: (Do(1+g))/(Re – g)
      The top bit on the formula (Do(1+g)) is next years dividend which is usually the current dividend times (1+g). However in this question, next years dividend is 23c and not 23c plus growth.

      So it becomes 23/(0.12-0.03) = 256 ($2.56)

      • I assume you are referring to example 4.

        Although from year to year the growth may be positive or negative, we are after the average growth per year over the whole period. This will always be positive in the exam.

        The only relevant figures here are 28,000 and 33,000 – the earliest and latest dividends.

      • H John I am puzzled practice question 12 C in the answer market value is 78 how did we came to that . Please advice

      • I assume you are referring to the market value of the debentures.
        The price given in the question is 90, but since interest is about to be paid this is a cum interest value. We need the ex interest value which is 90 – 12 = 78.

        (In future please ask this sort of question in the F9 Ask the Tutor Forum, and not as a comment on a lecture 🙂 )

      • Hi the same question on F9 practice question 12 d in answer calculations Kd how did we worked out market value $90

      • Did you read my previous reply? Because I asked you not to post this sort of question as a comment on a lecture, and also because it is exactly the same reason.
        The price in the question is 95. The question says that interest is about to be paid and therefore it is a cum interest price. The interest is 5, and therefore the ex interest price is 90.

        Again, I do suggest that you watch our free lectures on this.

    • I assume that you are referring to example 4?

      If you are, then I don’t think it is the fault of your calculator but probably you pressing the wrong buttons 🙂

      (1 + g) = fourth root of (33000/28,000) = fourth root of 1.178571

      To take the fourth root, either use the relevant button or take the square root twice. In either case it comes to 1.04193.

      (It could not possibly come to 4.34248!!)

    • No – it would not!

      Imagine it is 100 now, growing at 10%

      In 1 year it becomes 100 + (0.10 x 100) = 110 (or 100 x 1.1)

      In 2 years it becomes 110 + (0.10 x 110) = 121
      This is the same as 110 x 1.10, which is the same as 100 x (1.10)^2

      Try it on your calculator and see.

      Every time we add on 10%, we multiply by 1.10
      If we do it twice, then we multiply by 1.10 twice.

  11. Dear John,

    Thank you for another great lecture, I have only 1 query. Regarding the rearranging of the growth model formula to find the shareholders required return, I have been happily rearranging as you instructed when I came across a question in my BPP revision guide that used a different formula. As I don’t expect you to have a copy of the textbook I will rewrite the information that I was given:

    “Ordinary shares are quoted at 80c, assume the market estimate of the next dividend is 4c, growing at 12% p/a indefinitely. There are 10400 shares in issue. What is the cost of capital of these shares (for the purpose of WACC)?”

    I calculated this as I believed correctly using your method as follows:

    Re = 0.04 (1 + 12%) + 12% = 17.6%
    —————–
    0.80

    The answer in the textbook however showed the following:

    Ke = 0.04 + 12% = 17%
    —–
    0.80

    My question to you would be, is there a difference between Re and Ke (as symbols) and am I therefore taking your formula in vain, or is this just another textbook example of the publisher getting the answer wrong?

    If you get chance to reply before my exam on Friday that would be fantastic!

    Many thanks Donna

    • It is not because of the symbols!
      Do(1+g) in the formula is the dividend in one years time.
      Since this question says that the next dividend (i.e. the dividend in one years time) will be 4c, then this is equal to Do(1+g)

  14. hi sir I was revising this for p4 in june attempt and in example 1 we got a return of 12.5%. I just want to ask that will we be giving this return on the nominal value or on the market value because if we give this on nominal value the dividend would decrease from 30c to 12.5c?

    • The market value of a share is determined by the dividend they expect and the rate of return that they require.

      So the required return (and therefore the cost of equity) is calculated using the expected dividends and the market value (not the nominal value).

      • Hello Mr. Moffat

        Let me start by saying your lectures are great and easy to go through. I don’t get bored. I think I have gone through 30 in 4 days or something! Also, you explain everything very well. You seem to cover every detail yet don’t take long to do so.

        Anyway, I have a similar question to what Uzair asked above. We calculated 12.5% as the cost of equity (thus the estimated shareholders’ required rate of return).

        However, raising money from shareholders in this case is through new issue of shares, isn’t it? So if we do decide to issue new shares, where does the 12.5% come into play?

        Are we promising dividends at 12.5% of our profit after tax (and thus they would be similar to preference shares)?
        I might be overlooking something very obvious but if we estimate that our cost of equity is 12.5%, how are we promising that 12.5% interest to investors each year if we do issue new shares? Will we tell them our estimated future dividends? Will we give them the estimated growth rate of dividends/profits?
        It is easy to understand it in debentures, where we are giving a fixed interest. But how do we pay out a fixed interest on ordinary share capital?

        Or is it just that since we already know the market value, we are working backwards and seeing how much return our existing shareholders are getting on average? (Because the rate of return is already taken into account in determining the market value). I don’t know if I am making any sense!

        Also, if we do indeed issue new shares, do we issue them at the nominal value of $1? Or will we open a share premium of $1.4 per share in addition to the nominal value to match the market price?

        I don’t know how relevant these questions are for the F9 exam, but better to clear them up.

        Thanks for your time.

        Regards

        Omar Parvez

      • Shareholders could put their money in the bank and be earning interest, and so will only be prepared to invest money in the company if they expect to get a better return. Investing money could be by buying shares, or allowing the company to retain earnings (which is money to which the shareholders are entitled to).
        They will want a return either by way of dividend or by way of capital growth – either way it means that the company must use their money to get a return at least as high as that required by shareholders.

        The problem is in deciding what return it is that shareholders require.

        The way we attempt to find out is by looking at the market value of the share currently. Since the market value is the present value of expected dividends, we work ‘backwards’ using the dividend growth formula. In theory this is fine, but the problem is that we do not know what dividend growth shareholders are expecting – we are forced to make an estimate which could be wrong.

        The other way (which you will cover in the capital asset pricing model lectures) is to calculate the riskiness of the shares (measured by the beta). Since the return required by shareholders (and therefore the return that the company has to achieve) is determined by the riskiness of the shares, then if we can calculate the beta and therefore the return required.
        Again, there are limitations as to the accuracy, but it is regarded as a better indicator.

        Remember that the company raises money from shareholders not only by issuing shares – retaining earnings is using shareholders money as well.
        If the company does issue shares then they would be extremely unlikely to issue them at nominal value. They would normally issue them at a price that was at least equal to the current market value of existing shares (unless, or course, it was a rights issue). The fact that this would increase the share premium account balance is not relevant – we are not interested in the financial accounts aspect.

  15. Hi Sir,
    Thank you for showing us how to calculate to the fourth root, however you didn’t mention how to calculate to the fifth root if five years is given in the exam. Would it then be a matter of calculating to the third root and then to the second root? Or calculating to the second root first and then the third root second? Or is there another way?
    Thanks for your help and quick response as exam is only 3 weeks away 🙂
    Sonria.

  16. I enjoyed the session. I am a person who cannot cram things I don’t understand, however if I do understand something I will very rarely every forget it. So to Mr. Moffat, thanks for helping me to understand the formula so that I won’t have to cram it off…

      • Thanks for your reply Mr. Moffat, however I am not getting the same result. I am calculating it as follows: 33000/28000= x2 (the first result I take the square root- 1.3890) = x2 (the second result I take the second square root-1.9294), eventually I am getting 1.9294 as a final result. Thank you very much

      • What you are doing is squaring it!

        (1.3890 x 1.3890 = 1.9294)

        I do not have your calculator, but there must be a square root button on it.
        33000/28000 = 1.1786. Square root once gives 1.0856, and square root again gives 1.0419

Leave a Reply