I AM SPRRY TUTOR….YOU ANSWER TO EXAMPLE 3 OF CHAPTER 8 DOES NOT AGREE WITH THE MODEL ANSWER….YOU HAVE INCORRECTLY DEALT WITH THE DEPRECIATION AND PROFIT IN THE PUP CALULATION.
Hi – yes, you’re probably correct. The rules changed some 2 years ago. The current situation is that the NET adjustment is made in the records of the seller company
The video recording equipment is no longer as available to us as formerly. No, I haven’t re-recorded the section – I’ll see if I can find time over the coming close season, but thanks for reminding me
That would be great, sir. But as I have a exam this session and since the older method is not anymore applicable. So we will deduct the excess depreciation from the PUP and then deduct the net amount from the selling company’s assets?
Correct. So the only change from the recording is that, instead of adjusting the depreciation in the buyer’s records, the NET pup on the TNCA transfer is adjusted in the seller’s records
I think you have loaded the wrong video because this one up here is exactly the same as the previous video which is “INTER-ENTITY TRANSACTIONS DIVIDENDS EXAMPLE4′ and it doesn’t talk about transfer of non current assets at all ………..so……can you check it out. Thank you again!
I can view all other videos but I just can’t view the ACCA F7 TRANSFER OF NON-CURRENT ASSETS under chapter 8. I’ve tried it for two days with different devices and different browsers.I’ve used different computers and smart phones but still can’t view this video. It gives me the same thing, it is blank no buttons or whatsoever…I can see the comments under the video but there is nothing on the top where the video supposed to be except the big red title. HELP! Can anybody please help me out here!!!!!!!
I think you have loaded the wrong video because this one up here is exactly the same as the previous video which is “INTER-ENTITY TRANSACTIONS DIVIDENDS EXAMPLE4′ and it doesn’t talk about transfer of non current assets at all ………..so……can you check it out. Thank you again!
Thanks for this. It is all clear, just one little detail which is confusing me, in example 3 – I am not very sure where did we get the figure of 100 from? The non current asset had a carrying value of 80 and it was sold for 90, am really not sure why we calculated it as sold for 100 and therefore the PUP is 20.
I think that, if you read the other posts on this string, you’ll find the answer to your question. The lecture MAY have been using an example I made up on the spur of the moment whereas the course notes should be correct
I see! Apologies – It did not occur to me to check the notes, true, the answer there is correct. Anyway, am glad that it is cleared up now, I was concerned there is a point I have missed which led us to calculate the pup on a S.P. of 100.
Mike, at the end of the lecture you said it effects both w3 and w4. for working 4 obviously it effects the amount of retained earnings to be apportioned between P&S but does the additional $50 get added to the NCI value? i.e w4 would look like Value of NCI x & Share of S post acq profits 325 do we then add on the $50 of dividend it is to recieve?
On p.52 in Example 3 it says about depreciations: “… with a full year’s charge in the year of purchase and NON in the year of sale”. Shouldn’t the depreciation surplus be 50?
@ silvikss,. Yes, i noticed that one too. Its the same principles whether 90,000 or 100,000 i guess, just the pup should have been 10 not 20. the double entry used 20 so CS of FP will still balance. Cheers
FIRST OF ALL THANK YOU VERY MUCH FOR YOUR TIME AND EFFORT!!! I REALLY LIKE YOUR TEACHING STYLE.
Is the answer in the course notes for example 3, chapter 8 correct (page 160)? I am asking due to the different approaches in your lecture and in the course notes in regards to the PUP and excess depreciation (Selling company / Buying company???). Shall we use the SELLING company ONLY in the exam, as mentioned in the answer to example 3???
May I also ask you to always explain everything, as if all of us students wanted to achieve high marks. You mentioned in one of the earlier F7 lectures that certain figures could be written out as a Revaluation Reserve, but you did not go ahead in the end and proceeded with the figures in the W3 Cons. Ret. Ears calculation.. Since then I am wondering how to deal with the Revaluation Reserve.
The pup on an intra-group asset transfer should be adjusted in the SELLING company NET of the depreciation on the profit. It may be that the above lecture does it the old way where some was adjusted in the selling company and some in the buying company.
It is now the case that both profit AND depreciation are adjusted in the selling company
I know when there is a negative goodwill, you add up the amount to the retained earnings as its your profit, but whats the double entry? If CR. Retained Earnings, then DR. ??
“Goodwill Account” or the account in which you have recorded the acquisition – maybe an account called “Cost of Control Account” or “Cost of Acquiring Subsidiary Account”
Thanks admin for providing the YouTube link! I watched the vedio till 8 minutes and 37seconds left (where tutor says:”I made the figures up”), and it won’t go on any further…
I also noticed that the answer shown in the vedio is different from that in the notes. Which is correct then?
@c0712, Ah, maybe! I used to teach the accounting entries for pups on TNCA transfers as entries in both the buyer’s and the seller’s records and that’s the way it is probably dealt with in the video lectures. I DID change the notes in the Summer, but I haven’t re-recorded to appropriate lecture yet.
So during the exam should we adjust both seller’s and buyer’s (the way its done in the video) retained earnings or just the seller’s (the way its done in the notes)?
sohailssaeed says
GOOD TEACHER open tution ,
Marvellous and very well lecture .
thanks
sohail
barpete says
I AM SPRRY TUTOR….YOU ANSWER TO EXAMPLE 3 OF CHAPTER 8 DOES NOT AGREE WITH THE MODEL ANSWER….YOU HAVE INCORRECTLY DEALT WITH THE DEPRECIATION AND PROFIT IN THE PUP CALULATION.
MikeLittle says
Hi – yes, you’re probably correct. The rules changed some 2 years ago. The current situation is that the NET adjustment is made in the records of the seller company
arifajs says
Have you not made any update videos on that, sir? Can you explain this change in detail please.
MikeLittle says
The video recording equipment is no longer as available to us as formerly. No, I haven’t re-recorded the section – I’ll see if I can find time over the coming close season, but thanks for reminding me
arifajs says
That would be great, sir. But as I have a exam this session and since the older method is not anymore applicable. So we will deduct the excess depreciation from the PUP and then deduct the net amount from the selling company’s assets?
MikeLittle says
Correct. So the only change from the recording is that, instead of adjusting the depreciation in the buyer’s records, the NET pup on the TNCA transfer is adjusted in the seller’s records
yan says
I think you have loaded the wrong video because this one up here is exactly the same as the previous video which is “INTER-ENTITY TRANSACTIONS DIVIDENDS EXAMPLE4′ and it doesn’t talk about transfer of non current assets at all ………..so……can you check it out. Thank you again!
opentuition_team says
it should be fine now
yan says
I can view all other videos but I just can’t view the ACCA F7 TRANSFER OF NON-CURRENT ASSETS under chapter 8. I’ve tried it for two days with different devices and different browsers.I’ve used different computers and smart phones but still can’t view this video. It gives me the same thing, it is blank no buttons or whatsoever…I can see the comments under the video but there is nothing on the top where the video supposed to be except the big red title. HELP! Can anybody please help me out here!!!!!!!
opentuition_team says
it was because you can’t access youtube.. ANYWAY. it should play OK now
yan says
Thank you so much!
yes i can play it now and you are right I can’t access youtube here without some “breaking through”
but thanks anyway!
yan says
I think you have loaded the wrong video because this one up here is exactly the same as the previous video which is “INTER-ENTITY TRANSACTIONS DIVIDENDS EXAMPLE4′ and it doesn’t talk about transfer of non current assets at all ………..so……can you check it out. Thank you again!
Sam says
Dear Mr Little,
Thanks for this. It is all clear, just one little detail which is confusing me, in example 3 – I am not very sure where did we get the figure of 100 from? The non current asset had a carrying value of 80 and it was sold for 90, am really not sure why we calculated it as sold for 100 and therefore the PUP is 20.
Thank you!
MikeLittle says
I think that, if you read the other posts on this string, you’ll find the answer to your question. The lecture MAY have been using an example I made up on the spur of the moment whereas the course notes should be correct
Mahoysam says
I see! Apologies – It did not occur to me to check the notes, true, the answer there is correct. Anyway, am glad that it is cleared up now, I was concerned there is a point I have missed which led us to calculate the pup on a S.P. of 100.
Thanks Mr little.
MikeLittle says
Welcome 馃檪
tauraiversatile says
Awesome!
barrzo05 says
Mike, at the end of the lecture you said it effects both w3 and w4. for working 4 obviously it effects the amount of retained earnings to be apportioned between P&S but does the additional $50 get added to the NCI value? i.e w4 would look like
Value of NCI x
& Share of S post acq profits 325
do we then add on the $50 of dividend it is to recieve?
Thanks
zhernovoi says
On p.52 in Example 3 it says about depreciations: “… with a full year’s charge in the year of purchase and NON in the year of sale”. Shouldn’t the depreciation surplus be 50?
silvikss says
Hi.
Has anyone else noticed that in the course notes the asset was sold for 90000 and not 100000?
Thanks
nikem says
@ silvikss,. Yes, i noticed that one too. Its the same principles whether 90,000 or 100,000 i guess, just the pup should have been 10 not 20. the double entry used 20 so CS of FP will still balance. Cheers
dknowles84 says
Hi Mike, do you teach face to face in the UK at all? I’m currently studying at BPP though I prefer your teaching style to be honest! Thanks
MikeLittle says
Sorry, but I haven’t taught in the UK for at least 10 years, but I’m still happy to receive your compliments 馃檪
lavvi says
could you please tell how did you calculate the depreciation for 2009???
and how did you get the depreciation excess of 5000???
merissa says
PUP (Unrealized profit/ #of years remaining life) 10000/2=5000
ffgg says
Dear Mr Mike Little,
FIRST OF ALL THANK YOU VERY MUCH FOR YOUR TIME AND EFFORT!!! I REALLY LIKE YOUR TEACHING STYLE.
Is the answer in the course notes for example 3, chapter 8 correct (page 160)?
I am asking due to the different approaches in your lecture and in the course notes in regards to the PUP and excess depreciation (Selling company / Buying company???).
Shall we use the SELLING company ONLY in the exam, as mentioned in the answer to example 3???
May I also ask you to always explain everything, as if all of us students wanted to achieve high marks. You mentioned in one of the earlier F7 lectures that certain figures could be written out as a Revaluation Reserve, but you did not go ahead in the end and proceeded with the figures in the W3 Cons. Ret. Ears calculation.. Since then I am wondering how to deal with the Revaluation Reserve.
Once again. THANK YOU SOOOOOOOO MUCH!!!
MikeLittle says
The pup on an intra-group asset transfer should be adjusted in the SELLING company NET of the depreciation on the profit. It may be that the above lecture does it the old way where some was adjusted in the selling company and some in the buying company.
It is now the case that both profit AND depreciation are adjusted in the selling company
tauraiversatile says
Will it then be marked wrong to adjust profit and dpn separately as you did- In Selling and Buying Co?
MikeLittle says
Yes, I imagine it will.
uuuu says
hi , admin Youtube is not accessible in my country. dear admin plz provide the download link or plz make it available online. plz help.
khzr501 says
please install hotspot shield to make ur youtube work and lectures will be available again.
ratan sarkar says
Hi Admin
Lecture on Transfer of Non-Current is not responding or opening. Pls check it.
dayah says
hi dear
can anyone help me to know how to get a pup of $ 20,000 in Lindas example 3- chapter 8,a bit confused
thanks
elsie2009 says
The lecturer has taken the sale of the asset as $100 instead of $90, if you review the answer in the lecture notes the pup is $10 and dep’n $5.
fyaxxi says
I know when there is a negative goodwill, you add up the amount to the retained earnings as its your profit, but whats the double entry? If CR. Retained Earnings, then DR. ??
MikeLittle says
“Goodwill Account” or the account in which you have recorded the acquisition – maybe an account called “Cost of Control Account” or “Cost of Acquiring Subsidiary Account”
annz2020 says
i can’t catch the lyrics or song that use for Working 2 and 3. Can write out the lyrics to help me to remember?
MikeLittle says
@annz2020, There really isn’t a song for working 2.
However, the working 3 song goes as follows ( H is the holding company, more commonly called the parent company these days, and S is the subsidiary. )
“H’s own plus
H’s share of S post acq retained less
Goodwill impaired since acquisition ( just our share )”
If there’s an associate involved then we need to introduce two extra lines – line 3 and line 5
“H’s own plus
H’s share of S post acq retained plus
H’s share of A post acq retained less
Goodwill impaired since acquisition ( just our share ) less
Impairment in A since acquisition”
tanyab says
Please to fix this lecture i have try the youtube link and still no sound.
tanyab says
This lecture does not work , no sound. Help!
c0712 says
Thanks admin for providing the YouTube link! I watched the vedio till 8 minutes and 37seconds left (where tutor says:”I made the figures up”), and it won’t go on any further…
I also noticed that the answer shown in the vedio is different from that in the notes. Which is correct then?
c0712 says
@c0712, Sorry, the first problem solved.
MikeLittle says
@c0712, If I’ve said “I made the figures up” it’s because a student asked eg “Which page are we on?” or “Where are these figures from?”
Now, before I started making the figures up, I will have said, for example “Say….” or “For example, if ….”
…and that’s why the video is not consistent with the notes – it’s because I was making the figures up!
c0712 says
@MikeLittle, Thanks Mike, but I’m afraid I was misunderstood.
I mean, for example 3 chapter 8, the answer you gave in the lecture is different from the answer given in the notes (December version).
MikeLittle says
@c0712, Ah, maybe! I used to teach the accounting entries for pups on TNCA transfers as entries in both the buyer’s and the seller’s records and that’s the way it is probably dealt with in the video lectures. I DID change the notes in the Summer, but I haven’t re-recorded to appropriate lecture yet.
Sorry
fyaxxi says
So during the exam should we adjust both seller’s and buyer’s (the way its done in the video) retained earnings or just the seller’s (the way its done in the notes)?
c0712 says
No vedio comes out for this lesson?Only for this lesson. Others are good? Anybody else having the same problem?Thanks?
c0712 says
@c0712, Why all the punctuation marks changed to question marks?
MikeLittle says
@c0712, That?s a good question?
c0712 says
@MikeLittle, I realy want to watch this lecture, and I’ve tried different browsers – ie, safari and chrome, but none of them worked…
admin says
@c0712, try this lecture on youtube – https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l7tt4EY-sqw&feature=player_embedded&noredirect=1