Kindly explain why we should include proposed dividend payable & receivable when we calculate consolidation retained earnings. shouldn’t be eliminated since it’s inter entity transaction.
The receivable and the payable are eliminated but we can only eliminate when we are in the position of having recognised
And we have to recognise because, within the dividend payable amount is the dividend related to the nci
And during the process of elimination, only the element of the parent’s share is eliminated from the payable figure leaving the amount attributable to the nci as a liability
In addition, if we don’t process the dividend, that means that retained earnings in the two entities are incorrect
Cancellation is merely a presentation exercise to remove the idea that we can have an amount payable to ourselves. But the entry should still be made because that dividend IS a payable and IS a receivable
When putting through the entries for the two entities, retained earnings are reduced and payables increased (for the subsidiary) whilst retained earnings are increased and receivables are increased (for the parent).
It’s only the receivable that is cancelled against a (large) part of the payables, but the retained earnings figure isn’t eliminated
I was reading a financial book published in 2007, stating that companies may wish not to consolidate if they believe it’s misleading due to the “control” only being” temporary” or because the businesses are “Heterogeneous”. Does that still apply today? and if so where can I find more material about that. Thanks.
Because, when we consolidat, we are showing the group as a single entity so 9 of that 10 dividend is payable by “ourselves” to “ourselves” and that would be stupid!
Not related to this lecture, if you are not given number of share how can you find out nci at date of acquisition if parent aquired 75% of subsidery for $2,000,000 and share price is $4.04?
Hello Sir I have few queries 1. Why we cut the Dividend from Current Asset? Because it is an adjustment so there must be double entry that we have to show in the exam as well… 2. Can we add the Dividend’s share of NCI in their workings as well?
When we ignore the current asset of dividend receivable from a related company (subsidiary or associate) in double entry terms, that’s a credit
The debit is against the parent company’s investment income on the statement of profit or loss
“Can we add the Dividend’s share of NCI in their workings as well?” is this the same as “Can we add the NCI’s share of Dividend in their workings as well?
The answer is NO!
The dividend from any company is paid as an appropriation of profits. It is not an expense of the year to be deducted in arriving at net profits
If you’re going to give the NCI their share of …..
this year’s subsidiary adjusted time-apportioned profit after tax
then you’re crediting them with those profits out of which the subsidiary is then going to deduct the dividend
To credit the NCI separately with their share of dividend (or even to credit the DIVIDEND with their share of NCI :-)) will be to double count
As always thank you very much for great lectures. Could you please explain why we do not take off that £9,000 from Retained Earnings as well when we cancel Receivables in P against Payables in S, i.e. how can we have that $9,000 included in P’s Retained Earnings when we are not going receive it (because we cancelled receivables for that figure).
Cancellation is a tidying up exercise. The parent IS going to receive it and, in the parent’s own accounting records, it will record the receipt of the dividend as:
Dr Cash 9,000 Cr Investment Income (and then to SoPorL) 9,000
So please don’t multiple post! If you post it in Ask the Tutor, I SHALL answer it because I SHALL see it. But I also keep an occasional eye out in the Latest Comments and, if I see anything there of relevance to my papers, I read those comments too
That means that, like now, I have the same question in front of me. Please, if you want an answer, post only on Ask the Tutor. Do NOT multiple post
If it’s a question not for me, then post in the general forum
shunjie21 says
I can’t find the video on share for share exchange in chapter 8. After the video on dividends it moves to chapter 9
MikeLittle says
I go through an example step by step in those course notes!
rosanam88 says
Dear Sir Mike,
Kindly explain why we should include proposed dividend payable & receivable when we calculate consolidation retained earnings. shouldn’t be eliminated since it’s inter entity transaction.
MikeLittle says
The receivable and the payable are eliminated but we can only eliminate when we are in the position of having recognised
And we have to recognise because, within the dividend payable amount is the dividend related to the nci
And during the process of elimination, only the element of the parent’s share is eliminated from the payable figure leaving the amount attributable to the nci as a liability
In addition, if we don’t process the dividend, that means that retained earnings in the two entities are incorrect
Cancellation is merely a presentation exercise to remove the idea that we can have an amount payable to ourselves. But the entry should still be made because that dividend IS a payable and IS a receivable
When putting through the entries for the two entities, retained earnings are reduced and payables increased (for the subsidiary) whilst retained earnings are increased and receivables are increased (for the parent).
It’s only the receivable that is cancelled against a (large) part of the payables, but the retained earnings figure isn’t eliminated
Better?
rosanam88 says
Got it, Sir. Many thanks. Enjoying your lecture 🙂
David says
Hi Mike,
I was reading a financial book published in 2007, stating that companies may wish not to consolidate if they believe it’s misleading due to the “control” only being” temporary” or because the businesses are “Heterogeneous”. Does that still apply today? and if so where can I find more material about that. Thanks.
Regards,
David
MikeLittle says
No, it certainly does NOT apply today
IFRS3 revised stops it (as well as IFRS 10, 11 and 12)
vandananair says
Sir why do we have to cancel 9 receivables in Laimonas against 9 of the 10 payables in Kristine, leaving 1 payable in Kristine.I did not get that part
MikeLittle says
Because, when we consolidat, we are showing the group as a single entity so 9 of that 10 dividend is payable by “ourselves” to “ourselves” and that would be stupid!
OK?
vandananair says
Thank you sir. Sorry for troubling you over such a silly question i was tensed so i couldn’t make sense of what was happening.
Daina says
Dear all,
MINI EXERCISES
10 Goodwill
13
Where does 100 appear from?
Ret ears 6 months (6/12 x $(4,700 – 100))
Many thanks!
MikeLittle says
Post this on the Ask ACCA Tutor forum, please.
It doesn’t belong in the section reserved for comments on the lecture
I’ll get back to you tomorrow
natty2 says
In the CA & Re ear account I do not understand where you got the 9000 from is it the liability you used to add to the CA a/c & RE ear A/C
MikeLittle says
Isn’t it 90% of a $10,000 dividend proposed by the subsidiary? And the parent owns 90% of the subsidiary
So the parent is accounting for the receivability of their share of that $10,000 proposed subsidiary dividend
OK?
riddles says
Why doesn’t the subsidiary get the 10% of dividend issued by the parent?
While the parent did get 90% of the dividend issued by the subsidiary?
riddles says
I watched the next lecture, the one about the Comprehensive example, you sorted this question out in that video 🙂 Thankyou
silvia748 says
Not related to this lecture, if you are not given number of share how can you find out nci at date of acquisition if parent aquired 75% of subsidery for $2,000,000 and share price is $4.04?
silvia748 says
i found the answer
MikeLittle says
You’re always given the number of shares in the subsidiary!
Always!
lenamisiri says
Last illustration Chapter 8. How did you determine the present value ,10% of 1.10 payable.
lenamisiri says
Don’t bother to respond. I got the solution. Simply algebra. Linear equation.
chiranjeev says
Hello Sir
I have few queries
1. Why we cut the Dividend from Current Asset?
Because it is an adjustment so there must be double entry that we have to show in the exam as well…
2. Can we add the Dividend’s share of NCI in their workings as well?
MikeLittle says
When we ignore the current asset of dividend receivable from a related company (subsidiary or associate) in double entry terms, that’s a credit
The debit is against the parent company’s investment income on the statement of profit or loss
“Can we add the Dividend’s share of NCI in their workings as well?” is this the same as “Can we add the NCI’s share of Dividend in their workings as well?
The answer is NO!
The dividend from any company is paid as an appropriation of profits. It is not an expense of the year to be deducted in arriving at net profits
If you’re going to give the NCI their share of …..
this year’s
subsidiary
adjusted
time-apportioned
profit after tax
then you’re crediting them with those profits out of which the subsidiary is then going to deduct the dividend
To credit the NCI separately with their share of dividend (or even to credit the DIVIDEND with their share of NCI :-)) will be to double count
Is that ok?
utkurjon says
Dear Mike,
As always thank you very much for great lectures.
Could you please explain why we do not take off that £9,000 from Retained Earnings as well when we cancel Receivables in P against Payables in S, i.e. how can we have that $9,000 included in P’s Retained Earnings when we are not going receive it (because we cancelled receivables for that figure).
Many thanks in advance.
MikeLittle says
Cancellation is a tidying up exercise. The parent IS going to receive it and, in the parent’s own accounting records, it will record the receipt of the dividend as:
Dr Cash 9,000
Cr Investment Income (and then to SoPorL) 9,000
utkurjon says
Thanks so much.
Ayesha says
Dear Mike, i cant find this example in lecture notes.
Ayesha says
i found it. sorry for hassle
williengo says
Hi Mike, Page 54, where do you get 55,500? Is the cost of the investiment not 55,900 ie
(6000+33000+14400+2500)?
williengo says
you answered this already in ask the tutor. Many thanks.
MikeLittle says
So please don’t multiple post! If you post it in Ask the Tutor, I SHALL answer it because I SHALL see it. But I also keep an occasional eye out in the Latest Comments and, if I see anything there of relevance to my papers, I read those comments too
That means that, like now, I have the same question in front of me. Please, if you want an answer, post only on Ask the Tutor. Do NOT multiple post
If it’s a question not for me, then post in the general forum
Thanks
Kashia says
I think I am missing a figure? Where is the $9000 proposed dividend for Laimonas?
MikeLittle says
Is it possibly 90% of Asta’s $10,000 proposed dividend?
Olga says
MINI EXERCISE
10 GOODWILL
Answer 16
Mike, could you please also explain, why in answer in FV of SNA @doa stands:
Ret earnings b/F 1500
Ret earnings 6 months 1000
Shouldn’t it be 3500 and 500 respectively?
Thanks!!!
Olga says
Dear Mike!
I have a question regarding mini exercises.
MINI EXERCISE
10 GOODWILL
Answer 8
I don’t understand, from where comes addition 2000 in the line:
Ret earnings 6 months (21000+2000)/2
So 21000/2 is RE from 1 Oct 2008 till 1 Apt 2009, and what is 2000?
Thank you!