Briefly explain to me how the treatment of of investment property carried under the fair value model differs from an owner occupied property carried under revaluation model
Investment property under IAS 40 1.) No depreciation of asset 2.) Any revaluation goes to SP or L (not OCI) 3.) Recognised at fair value
Owner Property at fair value is treated using IAS16: 1.) Revalued each year 2.) Depreciation is charged using straight line or reducing balance 3.)Revaluation goes to OCI
haaai sir, it will be my second attempt this time and the only problem i am having is in standard questions which kinda makes hardship for me while solving them.
so any effective way to have a grip on standard and its questions please.
sir,….in your notes for june 2014 exam of this chapter on page 141,…for the ..start of operating lease is (investment property – inventory) but in the video here is (inventory-investment property)…?? ..why is it different?
assets should be transferred into or out of investment property when there is a change in use, for example: • owner occupation (investment property -TNCA) • development with a view to sell (investment property- inventory) • end of owner occupation (TNCA- investment property) • start of operating lease (investment property- inventory) • end of construction or development (assets in the course of construction investment property)
Hmmm – if it WAS in investment property and has now been leased out under an operating lease then, yes, it should come out of investment property and be shown as a separate asset. The correct adjustment is to take it out of investment property and add it into inventory – so it looks like the lecture is correct
A property that is leased to a third party under a finance lease is not within the definition of IAS 40.However A property that is leased out to a third party is within the scope of investment property . Pls correct me if I am wrong.
A property that is leased to a third party under a finance lease is not within the definition of IAS 40.However A property that is leased out under operating lease to a third party is within the scope of investment property . Pls correct me if I am wrong.
For the start of the operating lease, the lecture says that the asset should be moved from the inventory and to the investment property. And, in the comment above, you say that if the asset is classified as an investment property then under operating lease should be moved to inventory.
1) Why do we move it from investment property to inventory? Wouldn’t it be an investment property if its leased under operating lease?
suppose ppe is being converted to investment property. the cost of the ppe was 12,000 but the carrying value is now 8,000. the fair value of the asset is now 13,000. can u pls help me with the double entry.
rvy17 says
Dear Sir Mike,
this chapter does not have any practice question on this video…
Or just another theory chapter..
I guess I need to put more effort in f7..
MikeLittle says
There’s not a lot that could be put in by way of numerical example – the theory pretty much says it all
samson says
Briefly explain to me how the treatment of of investment property carried under the fair value model differs from an owner occupied property carried under revaluation model
Tobi says
Investment property under IAS 40
1.) No depreciation of asset
2.) Any revaluation goes to SP or L (not OCI)
3.) Recognised at fair value
Owner Property at fair value is treated using IAS16:
1.) Revalued each year
2.) Depreciation is charged using straight line or reducing balance
3.)Revaluation goes to OCI
mohammad says
haaai sir, it will be my second attempt this time and the only problem i am having is in standard questions which kinda makes hardship for me while solving them.
so any effective way to have a grip on standard and its questions please.
awaiting for your kind suggestion,
Thanks
akcw says
sir,….in your notes for june 2014 exam of this chapter on page 141,…for the ..start of operating lease is (investment property – inventory) but in the video here is (inventory-investment property)…?? ..why is it different?
thanks
MikeLittle says
I do not have the notes with me in Southern Greece. Give me the context and the full double entries with debits and credits, please
akcw says
assets should be transferred into or out of investment property when there is a change in use, for example:
• owner occupation (investment property -TNCA)
• development with a view to sell (investment property- inventory)
• end of owner occupation (TNCA- investment property)
• start of operating lease (investment property- inventory)
• end of construction or development (assets in the course of construction investment property)
on page 141 of June 2014 exam notes…… 🙂
MikeLittle says
Hmmm – if it WAS in investment property and has now been leased out under an operating lease then, yes, it should come out of investment property and be shown as a separate asset. The correct adjustment is to take it out of investment property and add it into inventory – so it looks like the lecture is correct
Ok?
manojjayawardane says
A property that is leased to a third party under a finance lease is not within the definition of IAS 40.However A property that is leased out to a third party is within the scope of investment property . Pls correct me if I am wrong.
manojjayawardane says
A property that is leased to a third party under a finance lease is not within the definition of IAS 40.However A property that is leased out under operating lease to a third party is within the scope of investment property . Pls correct me if I am wrong.
MikeLittle says
That seems ok to me!
hemraj123 says
Dear sir,
For the start of the operating lease, the lecture says that the asset should be moved from the inventory and to the investment property. And, in the comment above, you say that if the asset is classified as an investment property then under operating lease should be moved to inventory.
1) Why do we move it from investment property to inventory? Wouldn’t it be an investment property if its leased under operating lease?
2) Why inventory? Shouldn’t it be TNCA?
emmadarko says
suppose ppe is being converted to investment property. the cost of the ppe was 12,000 but the carrying value is now 8,000. the fair value of the asset is now 13,000. can u pls help me with the double entry.
MikeLittle says
Is there a problem with Dr Investment Property 5,000 and Cr Statement of Comprehensive Income / Revaluation Reserve 5,000?
keven says
I don’t see any problem, unless I AM WRONG.
MikeLittle says
Me neither!
anita says
it is very hard and impossible to view lectures
nica says
I cannor view the lectures.