Thank you Mike but please be a little more audible. Am using Revision kit for Dec 15 sitting and it seems some of the questions are so edited ,cos some parts are not there like the share section. Plse advise me on what to do.
I believe that I write the name of the question and the exam session at the start of those answers that are included within the revision lectures. With that information you should be able to download the actual question from the past exams that you can find on this website (or from the ACCA’s own website)
And next time that I do any recording, I’ll try to be a bit more audible!
Now I’m really confused. The standards says another thing. In the exam kit they have not recognised the gain on the revaluation of 600. Please help I’m self-studying. Has someone forgotten to update somewhere in the books or standard? Thank you
Please can you explain why the 10 million was subtracted from revenue and added to loan. And 7million added to inventory, 7million subtracted from cost of sales
Without looking at the question, this sounds like an example of sale and repurchase. It’s not really a sale – the company has the right (probably the obligation!) to buy the goods back at the end of a specified period of time.
And if it’s not a genuine sale, then it should be removed from revenue and treated as a loan
Yes I got it now. Thanks a lot gazzi. So for all such questions, whenever a rights issue is issued by the company , we should assume that these shares have also been added up in the Trial Balance?
Where ever you need to calculate eps calculation you need to this calculation… and offcourse dear the trial balance given will definatly gives you the year end figure( but which may require some adjusments) i will read the whole question again and let you for sure.
Key thing for passing this paper is understanding the logic and most important practice more n more….
gazzisays
mike your the best 🙂 thanks for the help in the last attempt….. thumbs up 🙂
Hi Mr Mike as per q share cap were $ 50,000 @ 50 cents note (v ) recorded a fully subscribed rights issue of 1 for 4 at $ 1.20 each how did you get the 40.000/=. I’m lost there. please help me out.
I dont understand how u arrived at 80,000 shares and 20,000 shares in the EPS comp. or how you determined that 40,000 shares were issued at 1 April 2012.
When calculating EPS 80,000 is the number of shares whereas when doing Statement of Changes in Equity the figure is 40,000 which is 80,000 shares at 50c each = $40,000. Then there’ s a rights issue of 1 for 4 which brings the shares from $40,000 / 80,000 shares to $50,000 / 100,000 shares. I trust this makes sense
Iam sorry but it didnt make any sense to me at all. i just cant get it. can somebody explains to me the adjustment that has been been made to the fully recorded right issue when it effected the change in equity statement.
First of all Thank you Mike for Your solution. I got all the adjustments right 🙂
I have question regarding “Revaluation of Asset held for sale”. In exam I also revalued plant held for sale (after charging 6 month depreciation) and transferred surplus to Revaluation A/C.
But when I came out of examination hall I suddenly remembered that according to IFRS 5 standard, Immediately before the initial classification of the asset as held for sale, the carrying amount of the asset will be measured in accordance with applicable IFRSs and after classification, asset is measure at lower of its carrying value and FV less costs of disposal”. But in exam question Atlas is not following revaluating model for its Plant.
I am still confused. Am I missing something? Please! Guide me.
mohdafzal says
AHFS should be recorded at lower of CV and FV, then why is it recorded at 4,200. Shouldn’t it be recorded at 3,600?
MikeLittle says
It should, you are correct
Thanks
mohdafzal says
You’re welcome.
calvinaw81 says
Earning should not include other comprehensive income (eg revaluation gain) to derive EPS?
MikeLittle says
Profit after tax, after nci, after preference share entitlements
njivan28 says
Hi Mike.Is this a nature or function method income statement?how do you know that?.Regards Njabulo
MikeLittle says
The (long-established) F7 examiner has always asked the same basis for cash flow questions to be prepared following the indirect method
OK?
Suzana Atim says
Thank you Mike but please be a little more audible. Am using Revision kit for Dec 15 sitting and it seems some of the questions are so edited ,cos some parts are not there like the share section. Plse advise me on what to do.
MikeLittle says
Hi Suzana
I believe that I write the name of the question and the exam session at the start of those answers that are included within the revision lectures. With that information you should be able to download the actual question from the past exams that you can find on this website (or from the ACCA’s own website)
And next time that I do any recording, I’ll try to be a bit more audible!
begmeygisele says
Hi Mike. Thanks for this good video. Can you please tell me if AHFS are recognised at fair value or lower of CV and FV. Thank you
MikeLittle says
At fair value on initial recognition and at fair value thereafter
MikeLittle says
Although there shouldn’t be much of a “thereafter” if the asset is going to be sold within 12 months
begmeygisele says
Now I’m really confused. The standards says another thing. In the exam kit they have not recognised the gain on the revaluation of 600. Please help I’m self-studying. Has someone forgotten to update somewhere in the books or standard? Thank you
MikeLittle says
Post this on the Ask the Tutor page. I’ve no time to answer it just now and it will have disappeared from recent comments before I can get back to you
seun says
Please can you explain why the 10 million was subtracted from revenue and added to loan.
And 7million added to inventory, 7million subtracted from cost of sales
MikeLittle says
Without looking at the question, this sounds like an example of sale and repurchase. It’s not really a sale – the company has the right (probably the obligation!) to buy the goods back at the end of a specified period of time.
And if it’s not a genuine sale, then it should be removed from revenue and treated as a loan
Ok?
nikhita says
How did we get the figure 80 million shares, instead it should be 100000 shares ?(50000 x 0.50) ?
Weighted average number of shares:
1 April 2012 to 30 June 2012 80 million x $2·00/$1·84 x 3/12 = 21·7 million
gazzi says
nikkita
if you divide 40000 shares by 50cents
then u will get $80000 which is not the shares
its the value of 40000shares…. did u get it……
gazzi says
opps sorry
ur ryt 40000 was the price and 80,000 is the shares
apart from that every thing explained is fine
just follow the steps u will get the answer straight n forward….
gazzi says
if u see my first comment which i made it u will understand
we have to calculate 40,000 shares which were at the start of the year( take it as 100 %)
in the question we were given the
opening share plus 25% shares right during the year which value was given in the question 50,000 shares
now to go back to the opening shares
we have to work back
100/ 125 * 50,000 shares
you will get 40000 shares
so during the year the right was of 10,000 shares
now sum it all up
40,000 shares ( 100% ) start of the year
10,000 shares (25%) during the year
50,000 shares (125%) year end( which was given in the the question)
just work back u will get the shares
and the price of the price per share is 50cent
ok nikki
nikhita says
Yes I got it now. Thanks a lot gazzi. So for all such questions, whenever a rights issue is issued by the company , we should assume that these shares have also been added up in the Trial Balance?
MikeLittle says
That last two lines in your post look good to me.
Do you understand it now?
gazzi says
Where ever you need to calculate eps calculation you need to this calculation… and offcourse dear the trial balance given will definatly gives you the year end figure( but which may require some adjusments) i will read the whole question again and let you for sure.
Key thing for passing this paper is understanding the logic and most important practice more n more….
gazzi says
mike your the best 🙂 thanks for the help in the last attempt….. thumbs up 🙂
gazzi says
there were 100% shares before rights issue
then 25% ( 1/4) more shares added
which makes 125% equals 50,000
if u wana go to 100% percent
100/125 or(1/5) * 50,000
will give 40,000 shares
i hope this makes sense
asma786 says
Thanks Mike now i got it.
asma786 says
In the SOCIETY the 40,000/= of share capital
asma786 says
Hi Mr Mike as per q share cap were $ 50,000 @ 50 cents note (v ) recorded a fully subscribed rights issue of 1 for 4 at $ 1.20 each how did you get the 40.000/=.
I’m lost there.
please help me out.
bennettdavey says
I dont understand how u arrived at 80,000 shares and 20,000 shares in the EPS comp. or how you determined that 40,000 shares were issued at 1 April 2012.
Renars says
When calculating EPS 80,000 is the number of shares whereas when doing Statement of Changes in Equity the figure is 40,000 which is 80,000 shares at 50c each = $40,000. Then there’ s a rights issue of 1 for 4 which brings the shares from $40,000 / 80,000 shares to $50,000 / 100,000 shares.
I trust this makes sense
Amanah Saeed says
Iam sorry but it didnt make any sense to me at all. i just cant get it. can somebody explains to me the adjustment that has been been made to the fully recorded right issue when it effected the change in equity statement.
MikeLittle says
If you start with 40 and have a 1 for 4, how many do you finish up with?
Same question but backwards …. if you have 50 but that’s after a 1 for 4, how any did you start with?
hks87 says
First of all Thank you Mike for Your solution. I got all the adjustments right 🙂
I have question regarding “Revaluation of Asset held for sale”. In exam I also revalued plant held for sale (after charging 6 month depreciation) and transferred surplus to Revaluation A/C.
But when I came out of examination hall I suddenly remembered that according to IFRS 5 standard, Immediately before the initial classification of the asset as held for sale, the carrying amount of the asset will be measured in accordance with applicable IFRSs and after classification, asset is measure at lower of its carrying value and FV less costs of disposal”. But in exam question Atlas is not following revaluating model for its Plant.
I am still confused. Am I missing something? Please! Guide me.
Thank you
Haris.