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ACCA F7 Exam Question 1 Picant and Sanders (June 2010)

VIVA

ACCA F7 past exams lectures Download ACCA F7 Q&A


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Comments

  1. sikander044 says

    November 19, 2022 at 10:25 am

    assalam o alaikom guys.
    siriahve a problem in software why they are deducting from net asset as wellitis intangible assesowhythey are deducting.

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  2. yoshisan says

    November 24, 2019 at 5:50 pm

    May I know why the answer opentuition given is different ACCA provided? ACCA answer shows assets-liabilities = 77,820, while capital & reserves = 77,820. Yet, the opentuition provided that assets-liabilities = 114,100 , while capital & reserves = 114,100. Can anyone explain this difference for me?

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  3. sivarubini says

    November 16, 2016 at 12:03 pm

    Good afternoon

    Can you please explain me why the share exchange 3/2*8,000*75% = 9000
    3/2*8,000*75% = 19,800 (share premium) was not accounted in the consolidated financial position?

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    • kwansodan says

      March 11, 2017 at 2:59 am

      This is because the introductory part of the question (line 8) stated that “Picant has RECORDED the share exchange…”.So there is no need to re-account for the share exchange

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  4. sinn says

    February 22, 2016 at 10:16 pm

    How did you arrive at the 3.8m goodwill impairment?

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  5. banglardamal says

    February 22, 2016 at 6:32 pm

    Could you tell me why software wasn’t deducted from working3 before deducting the pre acq retd ears? It was deducted eventually by pre acq though…..

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    • MikeLittle says

      February 22, 2016 at 8:09 pm

      Without looking again at my answer, the software should have been a fair value downwards adjustment of $500,000 as at date of acquisition in working W2 Goodwill

      and in working W3 it should be shown as an adjusting deduction from the retained earnings as at date of acquisition

      Is that not what I have done?

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  6. gabikar says

    November 21, 2012 at 3:58 pm

    It is difficult to follow, could you please sort out the sound? Thank you

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  7. patmho says

    May 20, 2012 at 2:42 pm

    The written workings is behind the lecturer’s talking by aboutt 20 secs how can I allign the two together so I can follow up.

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  8. QIN says

    April 17, 2012 at 5:27 am

    why software 500 should be deducted as F.V.adjusting?

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  9. N Rudenko says

    June 11, 2011 at 2:30 pm

    I am looking at Jun’10 Q1 and can’t calculate Sander’s NA@reporting date to arrive to £2,400 loss as per answer. pls help

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  10. chemao says

    December 11, 2010 at 7:07 pm

    Not able to view the video, and i did not see how you accounted for the additional contingent consideration that dropped from $4.2 to $2.7. But thanks for the presentation.

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    • jodianww says

      June 8, 2012 at 5:22 am

      @chemao, The initial consideration of 4.2m was recorded in the good will calculation as part of the cost of investment.
      The 2.7m as at year end was recorded as a current liability in the CSoFP
      The difference of 1.5 (4.2-2.7) was used in the consolidated retained earning calculation, it was added.
      Hope that helps and that you are not confused.

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  11. qamber hussain says

    November 15, 2010 at 12:02 am

    fantastic! i really like it with your attractive voice.

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  12. myjoy says

    November 9, 2010 at 6:49 pm

    i cant view the video

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  13. admin says

    November 9, 2010 at 12:34 pm

    Davis
    Try another browser and install flash player

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  14. davis61 says

    November 9, 2010 at 12:23 pm

    I cannot view the presentation on how to plan your answers in 15 minutes based on the June 2010 F7 questions.

    What do I have to do in order to watch the presentations?

    Davis61

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  15. drklau1 says

    November 5, 2010 at 12:45 pm

    GREAT

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  16. kennyfaj says

    November 5, 2010 at 12:22 pm

    wow.very good

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  17. ngandu says

    November 4, 2010 at 8:02 am

    I love it

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  18. abuzar034 says

    October 30, 2010 at 5:40 pm

    Nice! as usual…….!

    Log in to Reply
  19. vicky86 says

    October 29, 2010 at 8:21 am

    Great

    Log in to Reply

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