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ACCA F3 Group Accounts The Consolidated Statement of Financial Position (2c)

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View ACCA F3 / FIA FFA lectures Download F3 notes


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Comments

  1. Sehrish says

    August 25, 2015 at 3:35 pm

    YOU ARE A LEGENDD!!!!!

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  2. abigail says

    June 7, 2015 at 1:30 pm

    Good day,

    Question 6, says we should solve for retained earnings, you only solved that of the parent company.
    The question should have been we should solve the retained earning for the parent company.
    Am free to correction, so feel free to correct me.

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    • John Moffat says

      June 7, 2015 at 4:28 pm

      I assume you mean test question 6 at the end of the chapter? (because example 6 in the lectures is not about retained earnings)

      If you do, then the answer at the back of the notes is correct.

      The retained earnings of the parent company do not change.

      The retained earnings in the Consolidated Statement of financial position are those of the parent company, plus the parent company’s share of the post-acquisition profits of the subsidiary.

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  3. icey says

    January 27, 2015 at 11:26 pm

    Your lectures are amazing im never left with any questions 馃檪 but i got stuck on the NCI working the fair value at date of acquisition isn’t given How is it 5000 ? My concept isn’t clear :/

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    • John Moffat says

      January 28, 2015 at 9:07 am

      Are you asking about example 7?

      If you are, then because P acquired the share on incorporation (i.e. on the date the company was formed), the value of the NCI on that date was simply their share (25%) of the share capital of 20,000.

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      • icey says

        January 28, 2015 at 2:53 pm

        Yes thanks 馃檪

  4. kevin says

    December 8, 2014 at 5:44 pm

    Any help on ths question?
    S sold a machine wth a NBV of $100,000 to H at a transfer price of $120,00 at the year start.Group policy dictates that the machine is depreciated over its remaining life of 5yrs.calculate the unrealised profit on sale of the machine.

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  5. BELLO OLAIDE TITUS says

    November 28, 2014 at 4:12 am

    pls what could have happened to my android phone? I have been watching ur lectures on my browser for the past 3weeks, but suddenly this week, I couldn’t even enter d website on d same browser. I could only enter via opera mini, but the videos are not showing on operamini. I have checked ur technical page and downloaded another browser but no solution. pls heeeeellllllppppp me.

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  6. BELLO OLAIDE TITUS says

    November 26, 2014 at 6:16 pm

    Hello admin, pls I was able to see lecture video before but suddenly, it’s not showing again and I couldn’t even enter the web on my browser. pls is anything wrong with your web now? pls help me

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    • John Moffat says

      November 26, 2014 at 6:35 pm

      Go to the support page (the link is above in the yellow box).
      The lectures are working fine, so the problem must be at your end – the support page should be able to sort it.

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      • BELLO OLAIDE TITUS says

        November 26, 2014 at 8:41 pm

        sir , I think th茅 problem may not be peculiar to me alone as I also tried using another browser but its not going. please what can I do?

  7. richard says

    November 22, 2014 at 10:20 am

    Hi John,

    Quick question. Should unrealised profits be shown in the financial notes?

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    • John Moffat says

      November 22, 2014 at 11:23 am

      No need 馃檪

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      • richard says

        November 22, 2014 at 11:35 am

        Thank you 馃檪 – so quick with your replies.

  8. Bakhtawer says

    October 18, 2014 at 12:13 pm

    I’m appearing for F3 earlier than my friends, self studied for it.I did many chapters in A levels so I did not have much new things to deal with.But all those I had , you made them easier for me.Thank you so much Mr.Moffat ! 馃檪 Good on you!

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    • John Moffat says

      November 22, 2014 at 11:24 am

      Thank you – I am please we helped 馃檪

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  9. Shahir says

    September 8, 2014 at 9:25 pm

    And in any fair value adjustments we add the amount to the both acquisition date and reporting date.. why cant we minus the unrealized profit under both dates??

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    • John Moffat says

      September 9, 2014 at 7:06 am

      Because they are two completely different things.

      The fair value adjustment at the date of acquisition is simply to get a fairer measure of the goodwill.

      The unrealised profit occurs because one company has previously sold to the other company at a profit and some of the goods remain in inventory. The individual companies are entitled to their profits in full – it is only in the consolidated accounts that we wish to show only the profit actually realised by the group. Prior to the date of acquisition there was no consolidating and so there was no such thing as unrealised profit.

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  10. Shahir says

    September 8, 2014 at 9:23 pm

    My Sir taught me to do consolidation in about five steps.
    First determine the % of ownership
    FInd the fair value of net adjustments
    Goodwill
    NCI
    Group retained earnings
    My questions for u.. is that under the second step it contains both acquisition and on reporting date.. Where should we minus the unrealized profit.. ???
    We calculate the post acquisition retained earning under the second step…

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    • John Moffat says

      September 9, 2014 at 7:07 am

      Well there are always just those same steps. They are the steps I go through in the lectures!

      I have answered your question above.

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      • Shahir says

        September 9, 2014 at 8:21 am

        Thank U !. Much appreciated sir 馃檪

      • John Moffat says

        September 9, 2014 at 8:33 am

        You are welcome 馃檪

  11. kellyofuasia says

    August 31, 2014 at 2:01 pm

    I am trying to get right. the balance sheet and p & l acct extract of ajah plc revealed the following details
    Bal sheet date as at 31 December, 2008———————————$000
    ord share of $1 each==================================800
    10% pref share of $1 each—————————————————–200
    retained profit ———————————————————————500
    P&l account for the year ended Dec 31 2008
    Turn over ————————————————————————-2,000
    profit after tax———————————————————————-682
    Retained profit for the year—————————————————–360
    required
    Calculate the non controlling intrest as it will appear in the consolidated
    profit and loss account of lekki, ….if ,it has 75% intrest in the equity of ajah plc
    in addition, lekki also had 40% intrest in the 10% preference shares

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    • John Moffat says

      August 31, 2014 at 4:01 pm

      The profit attributable to the non-controlling interest is 25% x 360 = $90.

      (Remember that we stopped calling the statements the Balance Sheet and the Profit and Loss Account several years ago. It is the Statement of financial position and the Statement of profit or loss.)

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  12. kimrong says

    May 30, 2014 at 5:03 am

    Hello ..johnmoffat.I have a query abt this exercise below. I dun understand the scenario.Can you help me ?

    Ex: Wet co owns 70% share in Dry co. On 1 july 20×5 the book value of the NCA( a non depreciating asset) of dry was $8000 while their fair value was established at $6200. On 30 june 20×6 the R.E of wet co was $9500 and of dry co was $2800.

    Ques: In preparing the comsoliadated SOFP of wet co at 31 dec 20X4, what the adjustment would be needed to NCA for the asset transferred?

    Ans said: decrease by $1800 !

    Can u explain why they decrease $1800?

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    • John Moffat says

      May 30, 2014 at 8:01 am

      It is because in the consol statement the NCAs will be shown at their fair value of 6200 instead of 8000 – the difference is a decrease of 1800.

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  13. Jide says

    May 11, 2014 at 9:51 pm

    Please how did you come about the figure of 5000 for fair value at date of acquisition under Non controlling interest?

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    • John Moffat says

      May 12, 2014 at 5:07 pm

      If you listen around 4 minutes in, then I do explain.
      Since P acquired its holding on the date of incorporation, the value of the NCI at the date of incorporation must simply be their part of the share capita;. i.e. 25% x 20,000 = 5,000.

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  14. Jide says

    May 11, 2014 at 6:08 pm

    The earlier part of the video on the calculation of goodwill is not included nor showing. please how can i view that part?

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    • Sanchez says

      October 9, 2015 at 9:46 am

      Think its Consideration 15000+ Fair value 5000= 20000 – 20000 of share capital. I’m not sure thought if correct?

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      • John Moffat says

        October 9, 2015 at 9:50 am

        Sanchez: you are correct 馃檪

  15. Abdullah says

    February 11, 2014 at 10:41 am

    one more question regarding NCI

    X acquired 95% of ordinary shares on Y at 20×0 31 december.
    retained earnings : of Y
    20×0=700,000
    20×1=800,000

    revaluation reserve @ 20×1 = 100

    NCI fair valuve at the date of acquisition was 45000$

    what is the amount of NCI reported ?

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    • John Moffat says

      February 11, 2014 at 11:57 am

      I am assuming that you want the NCI as at 31 December 20X1. You have not said what the balance on the revaluation reserve was at the date of acquisition. If I assume that the balance then was zero, then the NCI is:

      45000 + (5% x (800000 – 700000)) + (5% x 100000) = 55,000.

      (If the balance on the revaluation reserve at the date of acquisition was 100000, then that last part of the above disappears 馃檪 )
      (And I do assume that the revaluation reserve is 100000 and not 100 as you have typed!)

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      • Abdullah says

        February 11, 2014 at 12:47 pm

        sorry my mistake it is 100,000
        and your answer is correct. in my revision kit the answer was also 55k but the method they used was really wrong (printing mistake)

        well why did you subtracted last years retained earnings with this years retained earning and not simply take new retained earnings x 5% ?

      • John Moffat says

        February 11, 2014 at 1:14 pm

        It is because we know what the NCI was worth at the date of acquisition (45,000) and the only reason it will have increased is because of profits made since the date of acquisition.

      • Abdullah says

        February 11, 2014 at 1:17 pm

        in calculating NCI what other reserves do we take in account ?

        and do we always subtract starting years value with closing years value on reserves nd retain earnings and then multiply it with NCI % ?

      • John Moffat says

        February 11, 2014 at 1:19 pm

        You would take into account all reserves.

        And it is always the change in the reserves since the date of acquisition that you are after ( multiplied by the NCI % )

      • BELLO OLAIDE TITUS says

        November 28, 2014 at 4:06 am

        Hello sir, I was studying with bpp text and I realized that they didn’t adjust revaluation value in one of there examples. P co acquire S co, but S co revaluation value of 4000 on date of acquisition, and later has 7000 on balance sheet. However, only 7000 was added to consolidate balance sheet. Is this OK?

  16. Abdullah says

    February 9, 2014 at 12:22 pm

    i have 2 question relating to un-realized profits
    1. X sold goods to y at a price of 40,000$
    the profit markup was 40% on sales price. at the end of year 25% of these goods are still held in inventory of Y. calculate unrealized profit ?

    2.During the year X solds goods to Y for 20,000$. the price included markup of $12000 profit. at the end of the year 50% of these goods still remained in the inventory. calculate un-realized profit.

    please sir help me solve this no matter what method i used i am not getting the correct answer :/

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    • John Moffat says

      February 9, 2014 at 2:09 pm

      Question 1:
      The goods still in inventory are 25% x $40000 = 10000.
      X sold these to Y at profit of 40%, so the unrealised profit is 40$ x 10000 = $4000
      (I don’t know where you found this question or whether you have typed it correctly. However they should not have called it a mark-up when it specifically says that the profit is 40% of sales price. Markups are %’s of cost)

      Question 2

      50% of the goods are still in inventory and therefore 50% of the profit is unrealised. 50% of 12000 is $6000.

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      • Abdullah says

        February 10, 2014 at 11:28 am

        in question 1 why did you simply took 10000$ x 40% ? why not 10000x 100/40 ?

      • John Moffat says

        February 10, 2014 at 11:31 am

        Because it says that the profit is 40% of sales price, and the sales price from X to Y is 10000.

      • mofi says

        February 11, 2015 at 12:07 am

        Hello sir,
        Would like to know how you can input this unralised profit in the group CSCI.

      • John Moffat says

        February 11, 2015 at 7:36 am

        I do not know what you mean by ‘inputting the profit’

  17. Javeria says

    December 7, 2013 at 12:14 am

    HOW DO WE CALCULATE THIS QUESTION?? PLZZ HELP
    Venus Co acquired 75% of Mercury Co鈥檚 100,000 $1 ordinary share capital on 1 November 2011. The consideration consisted of $2 cash per share and 1 share in Venus Co for every 1 share acquired in Mercury Co.
    Venus Co shares have a nominal value of $1 and a fair value of $1.75. The fair value of the non-controlling interest was $82,000 and the fair value of net assets acquired was $215,500.

    What should be recorded as goodwill on acquisition of Venus Co in the consolidated financial statements?
    $147,750
    $91,500
    $16,500
    $63,375

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    • nakeshia says

      December 7, 2013 at 12:45 pm

      Is 91500 the correct answer?

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      • John Moffat says

        December 7, 2013 at 4:01 pm

        No – the correct answer is $147,750

        I have told you how to answer this question in reply your posting about it elsewhere on this website!!

      • nakeshia says

        December 7, 2013 at 4:15 pm

        I have been looking but came up with nothing. Can’t find it

      • Javeria says

        December 8, 2013 at 12:22 am

        Ok but i dont know how to solve this question its very complicated and confusing pllzzz help =(

      • John Moffat says

        December 8, 2013 at 2:16 pm

        Calculate the total that Venus paid ($2 cash + $1.75 shares for each of 75,000 shares in Mercury), and add to this the fair value of the non-controlling interest at the date of acquisition.

        Subtract from this total the fair value of the net assets acquired, and the difference is the goodwill arising on colsolidation.

      • Javeria says

        December 9, 2013 at 3:22 am

        Thank you so much =) i have exam tomorrow i was really worried if i get such question and dont the arithmetic to solve it =D

  18. merryjxm says

    November 24, 2013 at 6:21 am

    how to deal with the unrealised profit in the next year? maybe based on the previous consolidated balance sheet and do adjustment on the unrealsied profit into the new one?

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  19. nakeshia says

    October 14, 2013 at 10:59 pm

    Why is goodwill 0? I’ve looked on the question so many time yet I don’t see why zero (0)???.
    Can someone please explain to me.
    Greatly appreciate it.

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    • John Moffat says

      October 15, 2013 at 4:25 pm

      The lecture above is about inter-entity transactions, and goodwill is not in any of the examples.

      Please let me know which example you are referring to and I will try and help!

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  20. sally925 says

    September 24, 2013 at 2:52 pm

    Sir @johnmoffat,

    I don’t understand how in example 7 did you get the “fair value of NCI at the date of acquisition” as 5000 ?? Please explain! Thankyou!

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    • sally925 says

      September 24, 2013 at 3:12 pm

      Oh well nevermind. I got it now 馃榾 Thankyou!

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      • sally925 says

        September 24, 2013 at 3:17 pm

        But then why in the calculation of Goodwill (which was zero) do we take the fair value of NCI as 20000 rather than 5000? Because in the test question 1 we are multiplying the percentage holding of the NCI with the subsidiary’s share capital? 馃檨

      • Khalid says

        September 24, 2013 at 4:36 pm

        Hey Sally. I cant really understand your question. Could you clarify?

        However, from what I understand, you are in doubt regarding the NCI calculation? As for goodwill, we dont need to calculate that in Example 7 since, as the question states, the acquisition was at cost. ( The SFP in the question states “Investment in S, at Cost”.)

        As for the calculation of NCI, according to IFRS 3 (Business Combinations) , it maybe measure as either

        1. A proportion of the net assets of the subsidiary
        2. At Fair Value -> the market price of the subsidiarys shares are an appropriate basis for the valuation of the NCI.

        therefore, in example 7 we see that the share capital of S is 20,000, and the Non-Controlling Interest percentage is 25% (Since rest of the 75% now belongs with P, who control the company).

        25% of 20,000 is 5000 and that is the value of the non controlling interest at the date of acquisition.

        Hope this helps.

      • sally925 says

        September 24, 2013 at 5:22 pm

        Thankyou so much!

        What I meant is, in example 7, we started with the calculation as:
        Consideration: 15000
        “Fair value of NCI at the date of acquisition: 20000”
        Total worth of the business: 35000

        But in “test question 1” we do the calculation as,
        Consideration: 21600
        “Fair value at NCI at the date of acquisition: 2400 (10% x 24000)
        Total worth: 24000

        So my question is, why do we do the “fair value of NCI” bit differently, even tho I know the goodwill will be zero??
        I hope I made sense this time.

      • Khalid says

        September 24, 2013 at 4:54 pm

        You said “we are multiplying the percentage holding of the NCI with the subsidiary鈥檚 share capital?”.

        Let me clarify.

        The Parent company now owns 75% of the subsidiary right? But not 100%. The NCI portion represents what the new owners of the acquired company OWE BACK to the previous owners of the company. The percentage of the subsidiary’s shares still with the previous owners is 25% <- This is the MAGIC NUMBER 馃槢

        NCI:

        NCI @ Acquisition (in ex. 7 , calculated using FV of shares @ acquisiton) : 20,000 x 25% = 5000
        NCI's share of subsidiary's POST ACQUISITION PROFITS : (15000-1200)x25% = 3450
        Non-Controlling Interest 8450

        See all those " x 25%"s ? That would be the calculation of what the parent company owes back to the old owners who still hold the subsidiary's shares.

      • sally925 says

        September 24, 2013 at 5:24 pm

        Yes I totally understand this bit. THANK YOU! 馃榾

      • Khalid says

        September 24, 2013 at 5:56 pm

        AH. I see. Continue on my update. I’ll explain there 馃檪 Your doubt is not really a doubt, just a bit of confusion.

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