Question 6, says we should solve for retained earnings, you only solved that of the parent company. The question should have been we should solve the retained earning for the parent company. Am free to correction, so feel free to correct me.
I assume you mean test question 6 at the end of the chapter? (because example 6 in the lectures is not about retained earnings)
If you do, then the answer at the back of the notes is correct.
The retained earnings of the parent company do not change.
The retained earnings in the Consolidated Statement of financial position are those of the parent company, plus the parent company’s share of the post-acquisition profits of the subsidiary.
Your lectures are amazing im never left with any questions 馃檪 but i got stuck on the NCI working the fair value at date of acquisition isn’t given How is it 5000 ? My concept isn’t clear :/
If you are, then because P acquired the share on incorporation (i.e. on the date the company was formed), the value of the NCI on that date was simply their share (25%) of the share capital of 20,000.
Any help on ths question? S sold a machine wth a NBV of $100,000 to H at a transfer price of $120,00 at the year start.Group policy dictates that the machine is depreciated over its remaining life of 5yrs.calculate the unrealised profit on sale of the machine.
pls what could have happened to my android phone? I have been watching ur lectures on my browser for the past 3weeks, but suddenly this week, I couldn’t even enter d website on d same browser. I could only enter via opera mini, but the videos are not showing on operamini. I have checked ur technical page and downloaded another browser but no solution. pls heeeeellllllppppp me.
Hello admin, pls I was able to see lecture video before but suddenly, it’s not showing again and I couldn’t even enter the web on my browser. pls is anything wrong with your web now? pls help me
Go to the support page (the link is above in the yellow box). The lectures are working fine, so the problem must be at your end – the support page should be able to sort it.
I’m appearing for F3 earlier than my friends, self studied for it.I did many chapters in A levels so I did not have much new things to deal with.But all those I had , you made them easier for me.Thank you so much Mr.Moffat ! 馃檪 Good on you!
And in any fair value adjustments we add the amount to the both acquisition date and reporting date.. why cant we minus the unrealized profit under both dates??
The fair value adjustment at the date of acquisition is simply to get a fairer measure of the goodwill.
The unrealised profit occurs because one company has previously sold to the other company at a profit and some of the goods remain in inventory. The individual companies are entitled to their profits in full – it is only in the consolidated accounts that we wish to show only the profit actually realised by the group. Prior to the date of acquisition there was no consolidating and so there was no such thing as unrealised profit.
My Sir taught me to do consolidation in about five steps. First determine the % of ownership FInd the fair value of net adjustments Goodwill NCI Group retained earnings My questions for u.. is that under the second step it contains both acquisition and on reporting date.. Where should we minus the unrealized profit.. ??? We calculate the post acquisition retained earning under the second step…
I am trying to get right. the balance sheet and p & l acct extract of ajah plc revealed the following details Bal sheet date as at 31 December, 2008———————————$000 ord share of $1 each==================================800 10% pref share of $1 each—————————————————–200 retained profit ———————————————————————500 P&l account for the year ended Dec 31 2008 Turn over ————————————————————————-2,000 profit after tax———————————————————————-682 Retained profit for the year—————————————————–360 required Calculate the non controlling intrest as it will appear in the consolidated profit and loss account of lekki, ….if ,it has 75% intrest in the equity of ajah plc in addition, lekki also had 40% intrest in the 10% preference shares
The profit attributable to the non-controlling interest is 25% x 360 = $90.
(Remember that we stopped calling the statements the Balance Sheet and the Profit and Loss Account several years ago. It is the Statement of financial position and the Statement of profit or loss.)
Hello ..johnmoffat.I have a query abt this exercise below. I dun understand the scenario.Can you help me ?
Ex: Wet co owns 70% share in Dry co. On 1 july 20×5 the book value of the NCA( a non depreciating asset) of dry was $8000 while their fair value was established at $6200. On 30 june 20×6 the R.E of wet co was $9500 and of dry co was $2800.
Ques: In preparing the comsoliadated SOFP of wet co at 31 dec 20X4, what the adjustment would be needed to NCA for the asset transferred?
If you listen around 4 minutes in, then I do explain. Since P acquired its holding on the date of incorporation, the value of the NCI at the date of incorporation must simply be their part of the share capita;. i.e. 25% x 20,000 = 5,000.
I am assuming that you want the NCI as at 31 December 20X1. You have not said what the balance on the revaluation reserve was at the date of acquisition. If I assume that the balance then was zero, then the NCI is:
45000 + (5% x (800000 – 700000)) + (5% x 100000) = 55,000.
(If the balance on the revaluation reserve at the date of acquisition was 100000, then that last part of the above disappears 馃檪 ) (And I do assume that the revaluation reserve is 100000 and not 100 as you have typed!)
sorry my mistake it is 100,000 and your answer is correct. in my revision kit the answer was also 55k but the method they used was really wrong (printing mistake)
well why did you subtracted last years retained earnings with this years retained earning and not simply take new retained earnings x 5% ?
It is because we know what the NCI was worth at the date of acquisition (45,000) and the only reason it will have increased is because of profits made since the date of acquisition.
Hello sir, I was studying with bpp text and I realized that they didn’t adjust revaluation value in one of there examples. P co acquire S co, but S co revaluation value of 4000 on date of acquisition, and later has 7000 on balance sheet. However, only 7000 was added to consolidate balance sheet. Is this OK?
i have 2 question relating to un-realized profits 1. X sold goods to y at a price of 40,000$ the profit markup was 40% on sales price. at the end of year 25% of these goods are still held in inventory of Y. calculate unrealized profit ?
2.During the year X solds goods to Y for 20,000$. the price included markup of $12000 profit. at the end of the year 50% of these goods still remained in the inventory. calculate un-realized profit.
please sir help me solve this no matter what method i used i am not getting the correct answer :/
Question 1: The goods still in inventory are 25% x $40000 = 10000. X sold these to Y at profit of 40%, so the unrealised profit is 40$ x 10000 = $4000 (I don’t know where you found this question or whether you have typed it correctly. However they should not have called it a mark-up when it specifically says that the profit is 40% of sales price. Markups are %’s of cost)
Question 2
50% of the goods are still in inventory and therefore 50% of the profit is unrealised. 50% of 12000 is $6000.
I do not know what you mean by ‘inputting the profit’
Javeriasays
HOW DO WE CALCULATE THIS QUESTION?? PLZZ HELP Venus Co acquired 75% of Mercury Co鈥檚 100,000 $1 ordinary share capital on 1 November 2011. The consideration consisted of $2 cash per share and 1 share in Venus Co for every 1 share acquired in Mercury Co. Venus Co shares have a nominal value of $1 and a fair value of $1.75. The fair value of the non-controlling interest was $82,000 and the fair value of net assets acquired was $215,500.
What should be recorded as goodwill on acquisition of Venus Co in the consolidated financial statements? $147,750 $91,500 $16,500 $63,375
Calculate the total that Venus paid ($2 cash + $1.75 shares for each of 75,000 shares in Mercury), and add to this the fair value of the non-controlling interest at the date of acquisition.
Subtract from this total the fair value of the net assets acquired, and the difference is the goodwill arising on colsolidation.
Javeriasays
Thank you so much =) i have exam tomorrow i was really worried if i get such question and dont the arithmetic to solve it =D
how to deal with the unrealised profit in the next year? maybe based on the previous consolidated balance sheet and do adjustment on the unrealsied profit into the new one?
But then why in the calculation of Goodwill (which was zero) do we take the fair value of NCI as 20000 rather than 5000? Because in the test question 1 we are multiplying the percentage holding of the NCI with the subsidiary’s share capital? 馃檨
Hey Sally. I cant really understand your question. Could you clarify?
However, from what I understand, you are in doubt regarding the NCI calculation? As for goodwill, we dont need to calculate that in Example 7 since, as the question states, the acquisition was at cost. ( The SFP in the question states “Investment in S, at Cost”.)
As for the calculation of NCI, according to IFRS 3 (Business Combinations) , it maybe measure as either
1. A proportion of the net assets of the subsidiary 2. At Fair Value -> the market price of the subsidiarys shares are an appropriate basis for the valuation of the NCI.
therefore, in example 7 we see that the share capital of S is 20,000, and the Non-Controlling Interest percentage is 25% (Since rest of the 75% now belongs with P, who control the company).
25% of 20,000 is 5000 and that is the value of the non controlling interest at the date of acquisition.
What I meant is, in example 7, we started with the calculation as: Consideration: 15000 “Fair value of NCI at the date of acquisition: 20000” Total worth of the business: 35000
But in “test question 1” we do the calculation as, Consideration: 21600 “Fair value at NCI at the date of acquisition: 2400 (10% x 24000) Total worth: 24000
So my question is, why do we do the “fair value of NCI” bit differently, even tho I know the goodwill will be zero?? I hope I made sense this time.
You said “we are multiplying the percentage holding of the NCI with the subsidiary鈥檚 share capital?”.
Let me clarify.
The Parent company now owns 75% of the subsidiary right? But not 100%. The NCI portion represents what the new owners of the acquired company OWE BACK to the previous owners of the company. The percentage of the subsidiary’s shares still with the previous owners is 25% <- This is the MAGIC NUMBER 馃槢
NCI:
NCI @ Acquisition (in ex. 7 , calculated using FV of shares @ acquisiton) : 20,000 x 25% = 5000 NCI's share of subsidiary's POST ACQUISITION PROFITS : (15000-1200)x25% = 3450 Non-Controlling Interest 8450
See all those " x 25%"s ? That would be the calculation of what the parent company owes back to the old owners who still hold the subsidiary's shares.
YOU ARE A LEGENDD!!!!!
Good day,
Question 6, says we should solve for retained earnings, you only solved that of the parent company.
The question should have been we should solve the retained earning for the parent company.
Am free to correction, so feel free to correct me.
I assume you mean test question 6 at the end of the chapter? (because example 6 in the lectures is not about retained earnings)
If you do, then the answer at the back of the notes is correct.
The retained earnings of the parent company do not change.
The retained earnings in the Consolidated Statement of financial position are those of the parent company, plus the parent company’s share of the post-acquisition profits of the subsidiary.
Your lectures are amazing im never left with any questions 馃檪 but i got stuck on the NCI working the fair value at date of acquisition isn’t given How is it 5000 ? My concept isn’t clear :/
Are you asking about example 7?
If you are, then because P acquired the share on incorporation (i.e. on the date the company was formed), the value of the NCI on that date was simply their share (25%) of the share capital of 20,000.
Yes thanks 馃檪
Any help on ths question?
S sold a machine wth a NBV of $100,000 to H at a transfer price of $120,00 at the year start.Group policy dictates that the machine is depreciated over its remaining life of 5yrs.calculate the unrealised profit on sale of the machine.
pls what could have happened to my android phone? I have been watching ur lectures on my browser for the past 3weeks, but suddenly this week, I couldn’t even enter d website on d same browser. I could only enter via opera mini, but the videos are not showing on operamini. I have checked ur technical page and downloaded another browser but no solution. pls heeeeellllllppppp me.
Hello admin, pls I was able to see lecture video before but suddenly, it’s not showing again and I couldn’t even enter the web on my browser. pls is anything wrong with your web now? pls help me
Go to the support page (the link is above in the yellow box).
The lectures are working fine, so the problem must be at your end – the support page should be able to sort it.
sir , I think th茅 problem may not be peculiar to me alone as I also tried using another browser but its not going. please what can I do?
Hi John,
Quick question. Should unrealised profits be shown in the financial notes?
No need 馃檪
Thank you 馃檪 – so quick with your replies.
I’m appearing for F3 earlier than my friends, self studied for it.I did many chapters in A levels so I did not have much new things to deal with.But all those I had , you made them easier for me.Thank you so much Mr.Moffat ! 馃檪 Good on you!
Thank you – I am please we helped 馃檪
And in any fair value adjustments we add the amount to the both acquisition date and reporting date.. why cant we minus the unrealized profit under both dates??
Because they are two completely different things.
The fair value adjustment at the date of acquisition is simply to get a fairer measure of the goodwill.
The unrealised profit occurs because one company has previously sold to the other company at a profit and some of the goods remain in inventory. The individual companies are entitled to their profits in full – it is only in the consolidated accounts that we wish to show only the profit actually realised by the group. Prior to the date of acquisition there was no consolidating and so there was no such thing as unrealised profit.
My Sir taught me to do consolidation in about five steps.
First determine the % of ownership
FInd the fair value of net adjustments
Goodwill
NCI
Group retained earnings
My questions for u.. is that under the second step it contains both acquisition and on reporting date.. Where should we minus the unrealized profit.. ???
We calculate the post acquisition retained earning under the second step…
Well there are always just those same steps. They are the steps I go through in the lectures!
I have answered your question above.
Thank U !. Much appreciated sir 馃檪
You are welcome 馃檪
I am trying to get right. the balance sheet and p & l acct extract of ajah plc revealed the following details
Bal sheet date as at 31 December, 2008———————————$000
ord share of $1 each==================================800
10% pref share of $1 each—————————————————–200
retained profit ———————————————————————500
P&l account for the year ended Dec 31 2008
Turn over ————————————————————————-2,000
profit after tax———————————————————————-682
Retained profit for the year—————————————————–360
required
Calculate the non controlling intrest as it will appear in the consolidated
profit and loss account of lekki, ….if ,it has 75% intrest in the equity of ajah plc
in addition, lekki also had 40% intrest in the 10% preference shares
The profit attributable to the non-controlling interest is 25% x 360 = $90.
(Remember that we stopped calling the statements the Balance Sheet and the Profit and Loss Account several years ago. It is the Statement of financial position and the Statement of profit or loss.)
Hello ..johnmoffat.I have a query abt this exercise below. I dun understand the scenario.Can you help me ?
Ex: Wet co owns 70% share in Dry co. On 1 july 20×5 the book value of the NCA( a non depreciating asset) of dry was $8000 while their fair value was established at $6200. On 30 june 20×6 the R.E of wet co was $9500 and of dry co was $2800.
Ques: In preparing the comsoliadated SOFP of wet co at 31 dec 20X4, what the adjustment would be needed to NCA for the asset transferred?
Ans said: decrease by $1800 !
Can u explain why they decrease $1800?
It is because in the consol statement the NCAs will be shown at their fair value of 6200 instead of 8000 – the difference is a decrease of 1800.
Please how did you come about the figure of 5000 for fair value at date of acquisition under Non controlling interest?
If you listen around 4 minutes in, then I do explain.
Since P acquired its holding on the date of incorporation, the value of the NCI at the date of incorporation must simply be their part of the share capita;. i.e. 25% x 20,000 = 5,000.
The earlier part of the video on the calculation of goodwill is not included nor showing. please how can i view that part?
Think its Consideration 15000+ Fair value 5000= 20000 – 20000 of share capital. I’m not sure thought if correct?
Sanchez: you are correct 馃檪
one more question regarding NCI
X acquired 95% of ordinary shares on Y at 20×0 31 december.
retained earnings : of Y
20×0=700,000
20×1=800,000
revaluation reserve @ 20×1 = 100
NCI fair valuve at the date of acquisition was 45000$
what is the amount of NCI reported ?
I am assuming that you want the NCI as at 31 December 20X1. You have not said what the balance on the revaluation reserve was at the date of acquisition. If I assume that the balance then was zero, then the NCI is:
45000 + (5% x (800000 – 700000)) + (5% x 100000) = 55,000.
(If the balance on the revaluation reserve at the date of acquisition was 100000, then that last part of the above disappears 馃檪 )
(And I do assume that the revaluation reserve is 100000 and not 100 as you have typed!)
sorry my mistake it is 100,000
and your answer is correct. in my revision kit the answer was also 55k but the method they used was really wrong (printing mistake)
well why did you subtracted last years retained earnings with this years retained earning and not simply take new retained earnings x 5% ?
It is because we know what the NCI was worth at the date of acquisition (45,000) and the only reason it will have increased is because of profits made since the date of acquisition.
in calculating NCI what other reserves do we take in account ?
and do we always subtract starting years value with closing years value on reserves nd retain earnings and then multiply it with NCI % ?
You would take into account all reserves.
And it is always the change in the reserves since the date of acquisition that you are after ( multiplied by the NCI % )
Hello sir, I was studying with bpp text and I realized that they didn’t adjust revaluation value in one of there examples. P co acquire S co, but S co revaluation value of 4000 on date of acquisition, and later has 7000 on balance sheet. However, only 7000 was added to consolidate balance sheet. Is this OK?
i have 2 question relating to un-realized profits
1. X sold goods to y at a price of 40,000$
the profit markup was 40% on sales price. at the end of year 25% of these goods are still held in inventory of Y. calculate unrealized profit ?
2.During the year X solds goods to Y for 20,000$. the price included markup of $12000 profit. at the end of the year 50% of these goods still remained in the inventory. calculate un-realized profit.
please sir help me solve this no matter what method i used i am not getting the correct answer :/
Question 1:
The goods still in inventory are 25% x $40000 = 10000.
X sold these to Y at profit of 40%, so the unrealised profit is 40$ x 10000 = $4000
(I don’t know where you found this question or whether you have typed it correctly. However they should not have called it a mark-up when it specifically says that the profit is 40% of sales price. Markups are %’s of cost)
Question 2
50% of the goods are still in inventory and therefore 50% of the profit is unrealised. 50% of 12000 is $6000.
in question 1 why did you simply took 10000$ x 40% ? why not 10000x 100/40 ?
Because it says that the profit is 40% of sales price, and the sales price from X to Y is 10000.
Hello sir,
Would like to know how you can input this unralised profit in the group CSCI.
I do not know what you mean by ‘inputting the profit’
HOW DO WE CALCULATE THIS QUESTION?? PLZZ HELP
Venus Co acquired 75% of Mercury Co鈥檚 100,000 $1 ordinary share capital on 1 November 2011. The consideration consisted of $2 cash per share and 1 share in Venus Co for every 1 share acquired in Mercury Co.
Venus Co shares have a nominal value of $1 and a fair value of $1.75. The fair value of the non-controlling interest was $82,000 and the fair value of net assets acquired was $215,500.
What should be recorded as goodwill on acquisition of Venus Co in the consolidated financial statements?
$147,750
$91,500
$16,500
$63,375
Is 91500 the correct answer?
No – the correct answer is $147,750
I have told you how to answer this question in reply your posting about it elsewhere on this website!!
I have been looking but came up with nothing. Can’t find it
Ok but i dont know how to solve this question its very complicated and confusing pllzzz help =(
Calculate the total that Venus paid ($2 cash + $1.75 shares for each of 75,000 shares in Mercury), and add to this the fair value of the non-controlling interest at the date of acquisition.
Subtract from this total the fair value of the net assets acquired, and the difference is the goodwill arising on colsolidation.
Thank you so much =) i have exam tomorrow i was really worried if i get such question and dont the arithmetic to solve it =D
how to deal with the unrealised profit in the next year? maybe based on the previous consolidated balance sheet and do adjustment on the unrealsied profit into the new one?
Why is goodwill 0? I’ve looked on the question so many time yet I don’t see why zero (0)???.
Can someone please explain to me.
Greatly appreciate it.
The lecture above is about inter-entity transactions, and goodwill is not in any of the examples.
Please let me know which example you are referring to and I will try and help!
Sir @johnmoffat,
I don’t understand how in example 7 did you get the “fair value of NCI at the date of acquisition” as 5000 ?? Please explain! Thankyou!
Oh well nevermind. I got it now 馃榾 Thankyou!
But then why in the calculation of Goodwill (which was zero) do we take the fair value of NCI as 20000 rather than 5000? Because in the test question 1 we are multiplying the percentage holding of the NCI with the subsidiary’s share capital? 馃檨
Hey Sally. I cant really understand your question. Could you clarify?
However, from what I understand, you are in doubt regarding the NCI calculation? As for goodwill, we dont need to calculate that in Example 7 since, as the question states, the acquisition was at cost. ( The SFP in the question states “Investment in S, at Cost”.)
As for the calculation of NCI, according to IFRS 3 (Business Combinations) , it maybe measure as either
1. A proportion of the net assets of the subsidiary
2. At Fair Value -> the market price of the subsidiarys shares are an appropriate basis for the valuation of the NCI.
therefore, in example 7 we see that the share capital of S is 20,000, and the Non-Controlling Interest percentage is 25% (Since rest of the 75% now belongs with P, who control the company).
25% of 20,000 is 5000 and that is the value of the non controlling interest at the date of acquisition.
Hope this helps.
Thankyou so much!
What I meant is, in example 7, we started with the calculation as:
Consideration: 15000
“Fair value of NCI at the date of acquisition: 20000”
Total worth of the business: 35000
But in “test question 1” we do the calculation as,
Consideration: 21600
“Fair value at NCI at the date of acquisition: 2400 (10% x 24000)
Total worth: 24000
So my question is, why do we do the “fair value of NCI” bit differently, even tho I know the goodwill will be zero??
I hope I made sense this time.
You said “we are multiplying the percentage holding of the NCI with the subsidiary鈥檚 share capital?”.
Let me clarify.
The Parent company now owns 75% of the subsidiary right? But not 100%. The NCI portion represents what the new owners of the acquired company OWE BACK to the previous owners of the company. The percentage of the subsidiary’s shares still with the previous owners is 25% <- This is the MAGIC NUMBER 馃槢
NCI:
NCI @ Acquisition (in ex. 7 , calculated using FV of shares @ acquisiton) : 20,000 x 25% = 5000
NCI's share of subsidiary's POST ACQUISITION PROFITS : (15000-1200)x25% = 3450
Non-Controlling Interest 8450
See all those " x 25%"s ? That would be the calculation of what the parent company owes back to the old owners who still hold the subsidiary's shares.
Yes I totally understand this bit. THANK YOU! 馃榾
AH. I see. Continue on my update. I’ll explain there 馃檪 Your doubt is not really a doubt, just a bit of confusion.