At the moment we do not have anything on this site specifically for the Diploma in International Financial Reporting. However Paper P2 of the ACCA covers the international standards and so a lot of the lectures and course notes for P2 are relevant.
To achieve this we need to credit the ‘cost’ account with the difference of 528,000. We also need to debit the accum. dep’n account with 1080000
In both cases the double entry is the revaluation account which means the balance there will be 552,000 (which is the overall profit on revaluation – the change in the NBV of 3072000 – 2520000 = 552,000)
After revaluation, we have to depreciate the building based on the new value. However, the depreciation policy stays the same, meaning, to charge 2% straight line. Why don’t you use the 2% but rather calculated the remaining estimated useful life of the building? Will it be wrong if i calculate the depreciation based on the 2%? In that case i’ll have the depreciation as $30720 for the remaining 6 months. Can you please clear this bit for me? Thank you
What you say would be wrong. 2% straight line is another way of saying that we depreciate over 50 years. When we revalue we should continue to depreciate over the remaining useful life (which is then less than 50 years).
Please, can you clarify, why we count the expected useful life in secound half of the year, if it says that depreciation policy is to charge 2% straight line? Shouldn’t we just multiply (3 072 000 *2% \ 2) to get secound year’s depreciation expense? Thanks
2% straight line is another way of saying that we depreciate over 50 years. When we revalue we should continue to depreciate over the remaining useful life (which is then less than 50 years).
Yes. 2% straight line is another way of saying straight line over 50 years (and similarly, 10% straight line is another way of saying straight line over 10 years).
Would the accounting treatment be same in case of initial revalued amount more than the current worth (here its going down)? Would Revaluation A/c still be debited?
No, if revalued amount were greater than original cost in NCA a/c, NCA a/c would have to be debited with the difference between the two and the Revaluation a/c credited thereafter. You have to decide on how you will adjust the cost account, whether by a debit or a credit, for it to reflect the revalued amount in the end. And by the way, revalued amount is not greater than current worth. CV= 3.6m – 1.116m= 2.484m < 3.072m (revalued amt)
Thank you very much Opentuition, however i’ll be grateful if you could plz specify whether we should add up an Accumulated Profit account? If i read page “the excess of the new charge over the old charge should be transferred from the revaluation a/c to accumulated profits. So, here we have an excess of $ 8522 ($80 522 – $ 72 000). Should this amount be reflected in the Accumulated Profit account? Thank you
@nzeadall, Yes, within the Statement of Changes in Equity there will be a transfer reducing the Revaluation Reserve Account and increasing the Retained Earnings ( also called Accumulated Profits )
@MikeLittle, thank you v much, just one last question if you don;t mind, so in this example, I’ll credit Revaluation Reserve A/C with $588 000 and Debit it by $ 8522. Then, we credit Acc. Profit A/C by $ 8522. Also, what is the purpose of this transfer since we have already accounted for the profit ($ 588000 made in the Revaluation a/c). I mean this is an unrealised profit in any case, why do we need to transfer the excess to Acc. profit a/c? Once again, Thank you so much for your help
At the time of revaluation the accumulated depreciation was 1,116,000. (3,600,000-1,116,000=2,484,000). as 3,072,000 is higher than 2,484,000 it’s a profit.
You can also see that the depreciation amount has gone up from 72k a year to 89k a year showing that the building is worth more.
I can’t imagine it’s the sale price but the depreciated amount after 15.5 years. If you calculate that back (89kx15.5years + 3,072,000) then you’ll get something like 4.45m. A tidy profit.
at the time of revaluation the accumulated depreciation is 1,116,000. We know that the annual amount is 72,000 (2% of 3,600,000). Divide the accumulated dep’n buy the annual figure then you get 15.5 years; i.e. if you charge 72k a year, then it would take 15.5 years to get the balance up to 1,116,000. 50 – 15.5 = 34.5 years as there is no change in the remaining useful life of the building. 89k happens to be 2% of the original cost if you calculate the revalued cost back over the previous 15.5 years (ca 4.45M)
Hi. I’m confused as to why the useful life needed to be calculated after the asset was revaluated and not before revaluation. To get the figure of 36000 we didn’t need to calculate the number of years? Thanks!
We need the remaining useful life in order to calculate the new depreciation figure.
We didn’t need it to calculate the 36000 because we were told the depreciation had been at the rate of 2% of cost (which was the same as saying that the original useful life was 50 years, because 50 years at 2% is 100%!)
Question No 4 on the test section, page 46, which value of the machine is to be used to calculate the new depreciation charge after the useful life was revised to 3 years ? $70,000 or $52,000 ?
dosan says
Hello. I would like to know if any leesons are available on this site of DIPFR lessons. If not is there any courses here that covers it?
Thanks
John Moffat says
At the moment we do not have anything on this site specifically for the Diploma in International Financial Reporting.
However Paper P2 of the ACCA covers the international standards and so a lot of the lectures and course notes for P2 are relevant.
dosan says
Thnak you so much.
zemsk says
is difficult to understand …why we debit Revaluation reserve and credit PPE, if it is an upward revaluation
John Moffat says
Before the revaluation, the buildings stood at:
Cost: 3600000
Dep’n: 1080000
NBV 2520000
Immediately after the revaluation we want the balances to be:
Cost (revalued amount) 3072000
Dep’n nil
NBV 3072000
To achieve this we need to credit the ‘cost’ account with the difference of 528,000.
We also need to debit the accum. dep’n account with 1080000
In both cases the double entry is the revaluation account which means the balance there will be 552,000 (which is the overall profit on revaluation – the change in the NBV of 3072000 – 2520000 = 552,000)
zemsk says
yea, i see… now everything is clear….thanks a lot for such detailed explanation!!
mehnoor says
After revaluation, we have to depreciate the building based on the new value. However, the depreciation policy stays the same, meaning, to charge 2% straight line. Why don’t you use the 2% but rather calculated the remaining estimated useful life of the building? Will it be wrong if i calculate the depreciation based on the 2%? In that case i’ll have the depreciation as $30720 for the remaining 6 months. Can you please clear this bit for me? Thank you
John Moffat says
What you say would be wrong.
2% straight line is another way of saying that we depreciate over 50 years.
When we revalue we should continue to depreciate over the remaining useful life (which is then less than 50 years).
mehnoor says
Thank you! 馃檪 Understood it now! 馃檪
Elena says
Please, can you clarify, why we count the expected useful life in secound half of the year, if it says that depreciation policy is to charge 2% straight line? Shouldn’t we just multiply (3 072 000 *2% \ 2) to get secound year’s depreciation expense? Thanks
John Moffat says
2% straight line is another way of saying that we depreciate over 50 years.
When we revalue we should continue to depreciate over the remaining useful life (which is then less than 50 years).
sally925 says
So if in the exam we are asked to depreciate on a 2% straight line basis, it means we depreciate over 50 years?
John Moffat says
Yes. 2% straight line is another way of saying straight line over 50 years (and similarly, 10% straight line is another way of saying straight line over 10 years).
sally925 says
Oh ok Thank you! I’ll keep that in mind! 馃榾
chrisyu says
is there chapter 7? what is chapter 7 all about? where i can find it?
admin please response.
John Moffat says
You can find chapter 7 in the Course Notes.
sally925 says
Hi. Im confused! Shouldn’t we be multiplying 2% by the accumulated depreciation i.e. $1 080 000? why do we multiply it by the cost?
sally925 says
Ammm… I think i got it..!!
Mohammad Ibrahim says
how does he calculate the 50 years ?
John Moffat says
It is being depreciation at 2% straight line.
This means that the cost is being spread over 50 years. (50 x 2% = 100%)
Mohammad Ibrahim says
how does he get a profit when the asset has been revalued at a lesser amount than the original cost?
John Moffat says
The profit is the difference between the revalued amount and the net book value. The net book value is less than the revaluation.
tess20 says
can some one please help solve question 1 on the test section, thanks
tess20 says
Please can someone solve question no 4 on the test section.Thanks.
Kaymakov says
Dear All,
please clarify if the balance on ACCUMULATED DEPR. A/C is = 44 522 $ ?
so on the balance sheet we put:
a) non-current assets: 3 027 478 $
building a/c 3 072 000 $
accum. depr. a/c (44 522) $
is it correct?
Thank you so much for your help.
saadqamar says
Would the accounting treatment be same in case of initial revalued amount more than the current worth (here its going down)? Would Revaluation A/c still be debited?
Futurediva says
No, if revalued amount were greater than original cost in NCA a/c, NCA a/c would have to be debited with the difference between the two and the Revaluation a/c credited thereafter. You have to decide on how you will adjust the cost account, whether by a debit or a credit, for it to reflect the revalued amount in the end. And by the way, revalued amount is not greater than current worth. CV= 3.6m – 1.116m= 2.484m < 3.072m (revalued amt)
winniemirage2010 says
Can anybody explain to me how the (528,000)was got
nzeadall says
Thank you very much Opentuition, however i’ll be grateful if you could plz specify whether we should add up an Accumulated Profit account? If i read page “the excess of the new charge over the old charge should be transferred from the revaluation a/c to accumulated profits. So, here we have an excess of $ 8522 ($80 522 – $ 72 000). Should this amount be reflected in the Accumulated Profit account?
Thank you
MikeLittle says
@nzeadall, Yes, within the Statement of Changes in Equity there will be a transfer reducing the Revaluation Reserve Account and increasing the Retained Earnings ( also called Accumulated Profits )
nzeadall says
@MikeLittle, thank you v much, just one last question if you don;t mind, so in this example, I’ll credit Revaluation Reserve A/C with $588 000 and Debit it by $ 8522. Then, we credit Acc. Profit A/C by $ 8522. Also, what is the purpose of this transfer since we have already accounted for the profit ($ 588000 made in the Revaluation a/c). I mean this is an unrealised profit in any case, why do we need to transfer the excess to Acc. profit a/c? Once again, Thank you so much for your help
newcareer says
can anybody explain to me q1, ch 6 (F3) please?
kashif477 says
why it was a profit because the cost of building was 3600000 and now its after revaluation is 3072000 it has actually gone down
andreasmacfarlane says
At the time of revaluation the accumulated depreciation was 1,116,000.
(3,600,000-1,116,000=2,484,000).
as 3,072,000 is higher than 2,484,000 it’s a profit.
You can also see that the depreciation amount has gone up from 72k a year to 89k a year showing that the building is worth more.
I can’t imagine it’s the sale price but the depreciated amount after 15.5 years. If you calculate that back (89kx15.5years + 3,072,000) then you’ll get something like 4.45m. A tidy profit.
maezzz says
@ Poutybud its 52000
maezzz says
When calculating dep for last 6 months i m confused about life 50 years then 34.5 years…. howz that plz explain
andreasmacfarlane says
at the time of revaluation the accumulated depreciation is 1,116,000.
We know that the annual amount is 72,000 (2% of 3,600,000). Divide the accumulated dep’n buy the annual figure then you get 15.5 years; i.e. if you charge 72k a year, then it would take 15.5 years to get the balance up to 1,116,000.
50 – 15.5 = 34.5 years as there is no change in the remaining useful life of the building.
89k happens to be 2% of the original cost if you calculate the revalued cost back over the previous 15.5 years (ca 4.45M)
Shadiya says
Hi. I’m confused as to why the useful life needed to be calculated after the asset was revaluated and not before revaluation. To get the figure of 36000 we didn’t need to calculate the number of years? Thanks!
John Moffat says
We need the remaining useful life in order to calculate the new depreciation figure.
We didn’t need it to calculate the 36000 because we were told the depreciation had been at the rate of 2% of cost (which was the same as saying that the original useful life was 50 years, because 50 years at 2% is 100%!)
poutybud says
Question No 4 on the test section, page 46, which value of the machine is to be used to calculate the new depreciation charge after the useful life was revised to 3 years ? $70,000 or $52,000 ?
s777 says
good job very nice