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ACCA F2 Investment Appraisal – NPV, IRR

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ACCA F2 / FIA FMA lectures Download ACCA F2 notes


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Comments

  1. morenike1 says

    August 9, 2018 at 7:38 pm

    Hi John,

    Please I don’t understand how (6660/8820*5%) results to 3.78%. Please help

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    • John Moffat says

      August 10, 2018 at 6:11 am

      Try dividing 6660 by 8820, and then multiply the answer by 5 !!

      Log in to Reply
  2. tejal14 says

    February 14, 2018 at 1:55 pm

    Hello Sir,

    Thank you for your lectures they are very clear and easy to understand.

    I however have one small question on example 2 IRR calculation where we deducted -2160 from +6660 the answer should it not be +8820 instead of -8820? Is there anything I have missed

    Thank you

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    • John Moffat says

      February 14, 2018 at 3:20 pm

      It really doesn’t make any difference whether you put a + or a -. If you understand what is happening (and not just learning a rule) then you will get the correct answer.

      I put – simply because it is a fall of 8820 to go from +6620 down to – 2161.

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      • tejal14 says

        February 15, 2018 at 9:52 pm

        Yeah that is true. Thank you very much for the response

      • John Moffat says

        February 16, 2018 at 7:51 am

        You are welcome 馃檪

  3. loukasierides says

    December 26, 2017 at 6:29 pm

    Dear Sir,

    using the cross multiplication is very helpful both for understanding but also to save time and learning long formulae. Thank. you very much

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  4. jennifer12 says

    November 29, 2017 at 5:12 pm

    Hi John,

    Thank you for the great work, this video played a big role in the success of my exam. With open tuition videos and notes I was able to prepare within the limited time I had. Once again thank you for the explanations and notes

    Log in to Reply
    • John Moffat says

      November 29, 2017 at 5:22 pm

      Thank you for your comment, and many congratulations on your success 馃檪

      Log in to Reply
  5. elko1212 says

    October 22, 2017 at 4:39 pm

    Hi John,
    I have a question concerning depreciation when calculating cash flows and NPV.

    In ACCA F2 exam kit I came over a test in which depreciation was included when calculating cash flows (the explanation in answers was the following: “Depreciation is not a cash flow so needs to be added back to profit to calculate cash flows”).

    But F2 text books and comments here state that depreciation is not an actual cash flow so it is not included in the capital appraisal calculation.

    How can I differentiate when it should be included and when not? Or maybe there was a mistake in the exam kit?

    Thank you very much!

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    • John Moffat says

      October 23, 2017 at 7:46 am

      Please don’t put links to other websites (the link you gave was more relevant to Paper P4 anyway), and please in future ask this sort of question in the Ask the Tutor Forum.

      Net present value is always calculated using only the cash flows, as explained in my lecture. Accounting profits are after subtracting depreciation. Depreciation is not a cash flow and therefore it needs to be added to the accounting profit to determine the cash flow.
      There is certainly not a mistake in the exam kit – this point is fundamental to NPV calculations.

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  6. Thierry says

    October 21, 2017 at 5:47 pm

    Hi John, I just have one question, how to know with accuracy with table to use? I mean by that how to distinguish this is the annuity table or the present value table that I going to use when it comes for calculations. thanks

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    • John Moffat says

      October 22, 2017 at 8:26 am

      But I explain this in the lectures!!

      You use the present value table for individual cash flows, and you use the annuity table for equal annual cash flows.

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      • Thierry says

        October 23, 2017 at 10:08 am

        Thanks a lot.

  7. cfin says

    October 2, 2017 at 6:38 pm

    Hi John,
    For NPV, I have a Question. I understand the calc but I just want to have a deep understanding of why. The interest is 10%, but why are we calcing this against receipts and not against the loan/investment figure of 80k? With simple interest we come in with a figure of 6,000 net present value. W/ compound, 7,128. I know these are wrong. I just want to grasp fully, why we deduct from the receipts and not the investment/loan…..It’s been a long day.

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    • John Moffat says

      October 3, 2017 at 8:07 am

      You could add interest to the amount borrowed and end up with a terminal value (as I explain in the lecture).
      However, rather than end up with a value at the end of the project’s life, it is more useful for decision making to have an equivalent value ‘now’ which instead means removing interest from the future cash flows.

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      • cfin says

        October 3, 2017 at 12:06 pm

        Thanks John.

  8. pavelpavlovmsc says

    June 12, 2017 at 10:36 am

    Sorry John if a question asks us to round the IRR to the appropriate integer should we always round it downwards? Why if so?

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    • John Moffat says

      June 12, 2017 at 2:46 pm

      No – round it to the nearest integer.

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  9. pavelpavlovmsc says

    June 11, 2017 at 7:38 pm

    Hi John
    Can you please help, if I have a calculator which calculates NPV and IRR automatically – is it worth using it? Because for IRR I always to get different answer than using the approach discussed in the lecture for about 1 percentage point. Thanks. For now it seems that it can only create problems in the exam.

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    • John Moffat says

      June 12, 2017 at 7:14 am

      No – don’t use it 馃檪
      (And if it displays text as well as numbers then you are not allowed to take it to the exam)

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      • pavelpavlovmsc says

        June 12, 2017 at 8:45 am

        Thank you! No, it’s a general calculator designed for CFA exam, the only thing it calculates similiar to the answers is just the payback period, unfortunately.

  10. musealk3 says

    April 29, 2016 at 12:26 pm

    Hi John. There’s a question in the practice exam about Accounting Rate of Return, and I’ve watched both of your Investment Appraisal lectures, but I can’t find ARR in either of them. Is there another lecture I’m not aware of? Thanks for all your help so far. 馃檪

    Aidan

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    • John Moffat says

      April 29, 2016 at 12:59 pm

      I should really remove it because ARR itself is not in the syllabus.

      However it is effectively the same as ROI which is covered as part of divisional performance measurement.

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  11. acca0001 says

    February 24, 2016 at 6:39 am

    Hi Sir,

    I would like to know if it is possible for IRR to be less than cost of capital and NPV to be positive, or IRR to be greater than cost of capital and NPV to be negative, should we accept the project? Based on which criteria?

    Thanks!

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    • John Moffat says

      February 24, 2016 at 11:20 am

      If the IRR is less than the cost of capital, then the NPV will be negative and the project should be rejected.
      If the IRR is more than the cost of capital then the NPV will be positive and the project should be accepted.
      The reasoning for this is explained within the lectures on IRR.

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  12. Walt says

    February 16, 2016 at 3:01 pm

    Good day
    In the mock exam there is a question to calculate the NPV, however this question includes inflows and outflows in every year. I took the net (Inflow less outflow) p.a and calculated that based on the NPV table in every year.
    I have done the question several times but my answer is always incorrect (I have NPV of +$53,520) the answer when I review is +$53,610 – This is a small difference and I wonder if the NPV table with only 3 decimals could cause this?

    The question is as follows:
    Initial investment $300,000
    Inflow per annum $120,000
    Outflow (Incremental cost) per annum $30,000
    Scrap value $20,000

    Please help! 馃檪

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    • John Moffat says

      February 16, 2016 at 4:49 pm

      Yes – it will be because of the rounding in the tables. Best is to use the tables that are provided in the exam 馃檪

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      • Walt says

        February 17, 2016 at 4:29 am

        thank you!

      • John Moffat says

        February 17, 2016 at 7:04 am

        You are welcome 馃檪

      • sal2222 says

        February 25, 2017 at 12:31 am

        I’m confused on this difference too. I still get that difference even though I am using the tables provided at the beginning of the notes.

  13. zee says

    December 28, 2015 at 2:59 am

    Do I have to worry about annuities and perpetuities in advance/arrears?

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    • zee says

      December 28, 2015 at 3:46 am

      Also I wish to know why there is no impact on IRR when the cost of capital changes? Just came across a MCQ!

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      • John Moffat says

        December 28, 2015 at 7:21 am

        The IRR is the rate of interest at which the NPV is zero. It is irrelevant when calculating it what the cost of capital is – the cost of capital may be higher or lower than the IRR.

    • John Moffat says

      December 28, 2015 at 7:19 am

      Yes – annuities and perpetuities starting at time 0 instead of time 1, or starting later than time 1, are examined and are covered in the lectures.

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  14. acca0001 says

    December 10, 2015 at 2:33 pm

    Hi sir,

    For the first example, although the NPV has a surplus of $6660, why should we accept the project if we could invest $80 000 at 10% interest p.a. for 4 years which will give a total return of $117 128? Thanks!

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    • John Moffat says

      December 10, 2015 at 2:55 pm

      But if you invested the returns from the project at 10% per year you would end up with 126,920 which is more!
      That would be the terminal value, and you cannot compare terminal values with present values.
      The net terminal value would be 126,920 – 117,128 = 9,792
      The net present value is 6,660.

      6,660 now is equivalent to 9792 in 4 years time (6,660 x 1.1^4 = 9,751, the difference is simply due to rounding)

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      • acca0001 says

        December 10, 2015 at 3:59 pm

        Right…i was not thinking about investing the returns. May I know how you got the terminal value $126 920? Thanks for your prompt reply!

      • John Moffat says

        December 10, 2015 at 7:25 pm

        20,000 invested for 3 years (year 1 to year 4) grows to 20,000 x 1.1^3
        30,000 invested for 2 years grows to 30,000 x 1.1^2
        40,000 invested for 1 year grows to 40,000 x 1.1
        and a total of 20,000 in 4 years, stays at 20,000

        Then add them all together 馃檪

  15. righan says

    November 30, 2015 at 8:08 pm

    Hi Sir, Is the figure “15%” a given figure or at random? or I can choose another percentage like 16% 17% 20% etc; How can I get this percentage figure to compare?

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    • John Moffat says

      December 1, 2015 at 6:11 am

      I do make it clear in the lecture than you can use any two ‘guesses’ in order to calculate the IRR (unless, obviously, the question specifically tells you which two rates to use).

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  16. Sammar says

    October 28, 2015 at 2:01 pm

    17400 + 22680 + 26320 + 5720 + 5720 = 77840

    80,000 – 77840 = 2160
    It gives a positive value not a negative???

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    • John Moffat says

      October 28, 2015 at 3:23 pm

      What you have written does give a positive value, but you have written it wrong!!

      The 80,000 is an outflow (which is why it has brackets round it). The other flows are all inflows. So there is a net outflow.

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      • Sammar says

        October 28, 2015 at 3:24 pm

        Oh yeah, sorry about that.

  17. crisa0702 says

    November 8, 2014 at 6:19 pm

    How do I calculate the discount factor for a 12.5% discount rate? Thank you

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    • John Moffat says

      November 8, 2014 at 7:03 pm

      You use the formula that is given at the top of the formula sheet (depending on whether you want the normal discount factor, or the annuity discount factor).
      I go through this in the previous lecture.

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  18. cediva20 says

    October 27, 2014 at 7:52 am

    Thank you for help.
    One question though..in the test post the chapter I’m not understanding why 8% was used to arrive at the IRR of 18%. I did get 18% but this was done the long way.
    Please assist

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    • John Moffat says

      October 27, 2014 at 4:57 pm

      I don’t know what you mean by ‘the long way’- there is only one way of doing it, making two ‘guesses’ and then approximating between them.

      Since we had already been asked to calculate the NPV at 12%, we had one value. You could try any rate of interest for the second value – my answer tried 20%.
      (8% is the difference between 20% and 12%).

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      • cediva20 says

        October 27, 2014 at 7:08 pm

        Thank you

  19. John Moffat says

    October 23, 2014 at 8:40 pm

    You have asked this question twice, and I have already replied to the first one.

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  20. Morganne says

    October 23, 2014 at 6:24 pm

    This was very helpful thank u but can u work this question for me plz
    An investment has the following inflows and outflows

    Time Cash flow per annum
    0 (20,000)
    1-4 3,000
    5-8 7,000
    10 (10,000)

    What is the net present value of the investment at a discount rate of 8% ?

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    • Farzana sultana says

      February 9, 2015 at 10:04 pm

      is the answer -97265

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      • Farzana sultana says

        February 9, 2015 at 10:08 pm

        sorry,the answer should b this one -36935.i made a mistake first time

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