dear sir , thank you so much for the lecture it was very helpful however i was wondering if may tell me wht in the lecture the formula for perpetuity is 1/R and in the notes A/R looking forward to your reply thank you
Hi sir, can you please explain if in a similar case of perpetuity, as you discussed, if cash flows were being received, say, quarterly or six monthly, then how we calculate PV, because 12% is the yearly rate. Are we suppose to divide this rate, like 6% for six months or 3% for three months?
There is such an example in the book, where an investment (PV) of $95 generates an interest of $ 12 per annum, indefinitely. It says that interest is paid half yearly, that is $6 every six months. In order to calculate (r), they have used the compounding method:- [1+(6/95)]^2 -1 = 13% In this case, why can’t we use the same method, by reversing the formula. 6/r = 95 therefore 6/95 = r. So r will be 6.3% per annum and (6.3/2) = 3.1% half yearly.
The other way of getting the same answer is to multiply by the 9 year annuity factor, but then to multiply by the ordinary 3 year present value factor, because the annuity starts in 4 years instead of in 1 year, so 3 years late. This will give the same answer (apart from roundings, which is irrelevant).
The annuity factor on its own only works from annuities starting in 1 years time.
janicetinggsays
Do you mean this way? annuity 1000[1-(1/1.08^9)] / 0.08=6246.88 pv [1/1.08^3]=0.794 6246.88×0.794= 4958.9
If the first payment is in 4 years time, then you take the factor for the perpetuity (1/r) and subtract the 3 year annuity discount factor. You are left with the discount factor for 4 to infinity.
What I don’t get is that calculating the present factor is quite easy with the calculator, the calculators do have the raise to power button, pressing it a little box appears above the value and you can put any number of years you want there.
ameliaduncan92 says
Hi,
For Example 5, could you not just do 800*1.10^-4?
John Moffat says
Of course you can, and I do this in the lecture!! But why not just use the tables that are provided.
shiza32 says
dear sir ,
thank you so much for the lecture it was very helpful
however i was wondering if may tell me wht in the lecture the formula for perpetuity is 1/R and in the notes A/R
looking forward to your reply
thank you
shiza32 says
why*
John Moffat says
It doesn’t matter what the symbol is (and is irrelevant for the exam). All that matters if the you multiply the amount by 1/r.
shiza32 says
understood sir , thank you for your help
John Moffat says
You are welcome 馃檪
Mahrukh says
Hi sir, can you please explain if in a similar case of perpetuity, as you discussed, if cash flows were being received, say, quarterly or six monthly, then how we calculate PV, because 12% is the yearly rate. Are we suppose to divide this rate, like 6% for six months or 3% for three months?
John Moffat says
Yes, and then you would multiply by 1/r where r is the 3 monthly rate, or the 6-monthly rate, as applicable.
Mahrukh says
There is such an example in the book, where an investment (PV) of $95 generates an interest of $ 12 per annum, indefinitely. It says that interest is paid half yearly, that is $6 every six months. In order to calculate (r), they have used the compounding method:-
[1+(6/95)]^2 -1 = 13%
In this case, why can’t we use the same method, by reversing the formula.
6/r = 95 therefore 6/95 = r. So r will be 6.3% per annum and (6.3/2) = 3.1% half yearly.
lamour says
For Chapter 22. Discounting, Annuities, Perpetuities – example 6, where did you get the 1200 when calculating the present value.
lamour says
Just saw the other comments re: correction no worries.
janicetingg says
hope you could enlighten me with question number 8,
by using the formula i cant seem to get the answer..
1000[1-(1/1.08*9)] / 0.8
John Moffat says
Which question 8 are you referring to?
janicetingg says
On the video it’s 17:50,
Annuity questions
John Moffat says
The other way of getting the same answer is to multiply by the 9 year annuity factor, but then to multiply by the ordinary 3 year present value factor, because the annuity starts in 4 years instead of in 1 year, so 3 years late.
This will give the same answer (apart from roundings, which is irrelevant).
The annuity factor on its own only works from annuities starting in 1 years time.
janicetingg says
Do you mean this way?
annuity
1000[1-(1/1.08^9)] / 0.08=6246.88
pv
[1/1.08^3]=0.794
6246.88×0.794= 4958.9
i think i got it, thank you!!
John Moffat says
You are welcome (although remember that you get given the annuity tables in the exam, so you don’t need to use the formula 馃檪 )
ujun says
Hi. That was helpful. How is it going to be treated if the perpetuity is going to be paid in say 4 years time?
John Moffat says
In the same way as for annuities that start late.
If the first payment is in 4 years time, then you take the factor for the perpetuity (1/r) and subtract the 3 year annuity discount factor. You are left with the discount factor for 4 to infinity.
Cheryl-ann says
hi am lose could you tell me where you got 1200 in example 6
thanks much
John Moffat says
My mistake – I am sorry 馃檨
I should have used 2,500 (not 1,200).
Thank you for noticing – I will have it corrected.
haxxangilani says
2500(0.231) = 577.5 ,If I’m not wrong 馃檪
weeni0204 says
Dear sir,
I can’t find the Present Value table. Could please help?
John Moffat says
If you look at the contents page of the free lecture notes you will find that the are provided in the notes along with the formula sheet.
aisha4897 says
Another helpful video. Loved it!
John Moffat says
Thank you for your comment 馃檪
Sammar says
What I don’t get is that calculating the present factor is quite easy with the calculator, the calculators do have the raise to power button, pressing it a little box appears above the value and you can put any number of years you want there.
John Moffat says
By all means just use your calculator. Just make sure that you can use the tables given if it ever becomes necessary.
Marcus says
Hi John,
I am having difficulties with final example, I am not quite sure where I am going wrong
1’500 x 1 =
(1.064)2
Thanks,
Marcus
John Moffat says
If you look at the lecture again, you will see that I am multiplying 1,500 by the discount factor. The discount factor is 1/(1.064^2)
0.064 because the rate of interest is 6.4%. To the power 2 because we are discounting for 2 years.
Marcus says
Hi John,
Thank you for explaining – I had a break and got back to it and it makes sense now 馃檪
Thanks,
Marcus
Tamara says
iam having a problem i need to know when to used annunity from when to use presen value when given a question
John Moffat says
You use the annuity factors when you have an equal cash flow each year.
When the cash flows are different each year, then you use the ordinary present value tables.
silvikss says
In the example for min 16:43, shouldn’t t the discount factor be 0.756 as per the table?
John Moffat says
The factor for 15 years at 2% is 0.743
(0.756 is the factor for 2 years at 15% !!)
silvikss says
oh yes, sorry i looked in the wrong place.
thanks
cckeble says
Quite informative easy to follow.
cameliaursu25 says
excellent tuitor
Reena says
How to calculate
x * (1.10)4
x =- 800 /(1.1)4
546.41 now.
I getting difficulty to count it calculator .Please explain
Musa Bin Masood says
firstly , do (1.10)4 then divide and you will get
chandhini says
Thanks a lot! 馃檪
chandhini says
@chandhini, OT definitely is a BOON.. Great job Mr.Muffat! You’ve made my life a lot easier! Kudos! 馃檪
anttola911 says
This has been very helpful thanks
williamansah says
great, another missing chapter in.
williamansah says
great