for me, ‘why did we not take risk free rate + beta x (market rate – risk free rate), following the formula.’ is because, in the question, market rate is not given. But, it gave risk premium.
Hello John, Here comes one question that in June 2013 Q2, when calculation of Ke using the DGM, in the examiner’s answer why using (taking the root of 2.5 of 36.3/30.9-1) to get the g value, instead of (take the root of 4 of 36.3/30.9-1)?
Besides. can I take the root 3 of 35.0/30.9-1 to get the g?
I think you mean how do you decide which two guesses to make in order to estimate the IRR. Any sensible guesses will do (unless obviously the examiner specifies which guesses to use). (By sensible, what I mean is that it would be normally a bit silly to try 10% and 11%!) As I point out in my lecture on IRR’s, different guesses give slightly different answers because the relationship is not linear. However that does not matter – you get full marks for doing it the right way.
adaacca says
where is the cost of equity of 12% coming from??
John Moffat says
The question says to use a cost of equity of 12% for part (c).
mayzin1707 says
Dear Sir,
I can not download question paper. Please help.
May
John Moffat says
It is available on the ACCA website: http://www.accaglobal.com
Shawn says
Hi sir,
In part d of the question for cost of equity
you took the risk free rate + beta x market rate. (4 + 5×0.895)
Can i ask why did you not take risk free rate + beta x (market rate – risk free rate), following the formula.
Thanks in advance.
bazilah29 says
hi.
for me, ‘why did we not take risk free rate + beta x (market rate – risk free rate), following the formula.’ is because, in the question, market rate is not given. But, it gave risk premium.
risk premium= market rate-risk free rate.
please advise me if my answer is wrong.
John Moffat says
bazilah29 is correct 🙂
aliimranacca007 says
Here is given that Card co has an equity beta of 1.6 .. at then end of Q why we not use this figure
John Moffat says
Because that beta measures the riskiness of Card. We need the beta that measures the riskiness of the new project.
I really do suggest that you watch the free lectures on this.
ayeodele says
please post more question sir
Fang says
Hello John, Here comes one question that in June 2013 Q2, when calculation of Ke using the DGM, in the examiner’s answer why using (taking the root of 2.5 of 36.3/30.9-1) to get the g value, instead of (take the root of 4 of 36.3/30.9-1)?
Besides. can I take the root 3 of 35.0/30.9-1 to get the g?
Thanks in advance.
John Moffat says
He has taken the 4th root (because there are 4 years growth).
(x^0.25 means the same as 4th root)
You should take the earliest and latest dividend, so third root of 35.0/30.9 would not be correct.
Fang says
OK, got it. Thanks so much. Like your lecture so much!
jing says
yes, that is what i meant 🙂 thank you John!
John Moffat says
You are welcome 🙂
John Moffat says
There is only one IRR!
I think you mean how do you decide which two guesses to make in order to estimate the IRR. Any sensible guesses will do (unless obviously the examiner specifies which guesses to use). (By sensible, what I mean is that it would be normally a bit silly to try 10% and 11%!)
As I point out in my lecture on IRR’s, different guesses give slightly different answers because the relationship is not linear. However that does not matter – you get full marks for doing it the right way.
jing says
how do you decide which IRR to use in the exam?