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  1. Moreover, in illustration 1 it can be assumed that the freight contractor gives the right of use of the particular type of “any” 10 rail cars in that particular fleet of 100 rail cars. So in that case it will not be a lease.

    Furthermore, how can there be no all economic benefits reaped in in illustration as the contractor will only be charging rent for use. The actual supply of the goods will nonetheless go to Peach whether the rail freight is of a particular type or any other.

    Kindly comment

  2. Dear sir,
    I have following questions:
    1) is it necessary to actually use the right of use asset yourself OR just right to direct the use of asset is enough
    2) some examples like in here of timetable is bond by legislation or local authorities. So regardless over the self use, giving the other entity the direction to use it in accordance with the sated timetable actually means you are directing the use of asset. So why is it not a lease

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