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ACCA F9 lectures ACCA F9 notes
May 9, 2015 at 8:47 pm
sir what do we need to do if we got extra overheads relevant to this project
John Moffat says
May 10, 2015 at 8:50 am
If the are extra (incremental) overheads payable by the company as a result of doing the project, then it is a relevant cash outflow (of the extra amount) when getting the net cash flows each year.
April 22, 2015 at 12:01 pm
Why is the material cost 864 in the first year and not 800? Wouldnt you buy the material on day one so therefore there would be no inflation in a day hence why Im confused why we do not use 800.
The lecture is saying if we do buy the machine it would be next year that we would buy the material, but if we decide to go ahead with the project and buy the machine tomorrow then wouldnt we then buy the material tomorrow aswell so therefore no inflation?
April 22, 2015 at 12:14 pm
We assume that the price increases on the first day of each new year. It may be impractical, but that is the assumption we make.
Also, the term “current prices” automatically always means in the exam that in one year it will inflate by one year, two years inflation in two years time, etc..
April 21, 2015 at 10:50 pm
what would you do with depreciation if there was no capital allowances?
April 22, 2015 at 8:03 am
You would ignore it because it is not a cash flow.
(Depreciation is always ignored. Capital allowances are only considered because of the affect on the tax.)
April 22, 2015 at 2:05 pm
so say for example the question said depreciation is absorbed into the fixed costs, would you have to take away depreciation from the fixed costs?
April 22, 2015 at 2:13 pm
Yes – you would. We are only concerned with cash flows and depreciation is not a cash flow.
April 21, 2015 at 1:36 pm
one things i am confuse about is , if we dont buy the material now on year 0, then how we gonna produce the product to sale on year 1?
April 21, 2015 at 2:29 pm
Have you watched the previous lectures, because I spend time on the timing of the cash flows in them.
It is not ‘year 0’ it is time 0, which is a point in time. Time 0 is ‘now – the start of the first year. Time 1 is one year from now – the end of the first year / start of the second year, and so on.
We always assume that operating cash flows occur at the ends of year (unless told differently in the question), so although we will be buying materials throughout the first year, we assume that the cash flow occurs at then end of the first year i.e. at time 1.
April 21, 2015 at 5:03 pm
yes, i have watched the previous lecture. i got your point now, i have figure out the where i have made a mess, the mess was on different between time0 and year o. you made it very clear now. thank you so much for your kind reply. its so nice of u . thumbs up…:)
April 4, 2015 at 3:27 pm
in the NPV calculation, for discount factor calculation what do we use if we have given only real cost of capital 5.7%
inflation is 5%
do we use the formula (1+nominal rate)=(1+real rate)x(1+inflation rate), i used this formula but still does not give a round % to use for discount factor.
April 5, 2015 at 12:29 am
In that case you would discount using the nearest % – the examiner expects you to use tables rather than calculate the discount factors exactly.
However it is very unusual to be asked to use real rates. Usually we inflate the flows and then discount at the actual cost of capital
April 6, 2015 at 6:54 pm
Thank you so much
February 19, 2015 at 6:39 am
Thank you John for this beautiful Lecture.
January 19, 2015 at 4:58 pm
I have been trying for 2 days, 5 hours in total, but cannot watch any of the lectures. The rest of the site is doing fine.
On my Google Chrome browser, I have increased the font size as otherwise I get a headache. Could that be the problem?
What can I do?
PLEASE HELP !!
January 19, 2015 at 5:26 pm
The lectures are all working fine, so the problem is definitely at your end.
Best is to go to the support page (the link to it is above). If the suggestions there do not sort out the problem then leave another message on that page and admin will try and help you.
January 19, 2015 at 5:55 pm
Rana Mateen says
January 18, 2015 at 3:46 pm
Sir i want to ask from where we can get inflation rate which we can use for our investment appraisals in real practical life?
January 18, 2015 at 6:19 pm
Well…..there are really two answers to this.
With regard to a general inflation rate it is impossible to know for certain but countries do make ‘predictions’ and so we would have to use that.
With regard however to the inflation applicable to specific flows, then it is really down to estimates.
It is impossible to predict inflation precisely (just as it is impossible to be able to predict cash flows precisely, even without inflation). All decisions have to be based on estimates and therefore it is impossible to make ‘perfect’ decisions.
February 19, 2015 at 6:45 am
thanks Sir I got it now.
December 29, 2014 at 11:16 am
i apologize for asking this silly question umm for capital allowance why is it not written in year 1 column ? it starts from the first year till it is sold so why it’s not written in year 1-3 ?
December 29, 2014 at 12:43 pm
The first capital allowances are indeed calculated at the end of the first year (i.e. time 1).
However, the second to last line of the question says that the tax is 1 year in arrears.
As a result, the benefit of the capital allowances will not occur until 1 year later – i.e. time 2.
November 7, 2014 at 6:09 pm
why you did not incorporate inflation in year 1 for sales?… its a little bit confusing point for me otherwise great lecture …..
November 7, 2014 at 6:25 pm
sorry i should have read the question carefully it is mentioned in question that the new product will be sold 20p.u in the first year…sorry my mistake…
October 7, 2014 at 8:25 pm
Mr Moffat, I’m confused about tax. Please, could you clarify for me how tax savings can be more than tax paid? What does it mean in real life?
October 8, 2014 at 4:31 am
We always assume that the business is already making profits from other sources, and is therefore already paying tax.
As a result, a ‘loss’ in any year from this investment isn’t really a loss, it simply reduces the profits they are already making and therefore saves tax they would otherwise have been paying.
May 18, 2014 at 2:20 pm
Here is a confusion with Bpp question for inflation:
I figured-out everything almost correct somewhere, but the working capital is really disturbing me. I share you portion of the question and also answer for that portion:
Inc/Dec. in working capitals are as follows:
Year 0: 20×3= +20000
Year 1: 20×4= +10000
Year 2: 20×5= -15000
Year 3: 20×5= -15000
The inflation is to be increased by 10%( applied to 20×4 and onwards). The project is 3years.
What I did:
20×3 year forward to 20×4= 30000 * 1.10 = 33000 ( this is correct)
20×5 = -15000 * 1.10 = -16500 +33000 = 16500 ( Incorrect )
same for 20×6
What Book did:
20×3 20×4 20×5 20×6
$ $ $ $
Investment @20X3 prices 20,000 30,000 15,000 0
Investment @inflated prices 20,000 33,000 18,150 0
Year Move @inflated prices (20,000) (13,000) 14,850 18150
I am curious how 18150 and onward figures arrive
May 18, 2014 at 2:25 pm
Oops I think this part is confusing to read: WHAT BOOK DID:
I’m doing it again here for easy reading:
I’m convinced for till year 20X4, lets start onward periods;
Investment @20X3 prices: $15000
Investment @inflated prices: $18150
Year Move @inflated prices: $14850
Investment @20X3 prices: $0
Investment @inflated prices: $0
Year Move @inflated prices: $18150
May 18, 2014 at 2:29 pm
I will answer, but please post questions like this in the Ask the Tutor Forum for Paper F9 – not here, which is for comments on the lecture.
Without inflation, the requirement at time 2 is 15,000.
But there will be two years inflation at 10%, so the actual requirement will be 15,000 x 1.1 x 1.1 = 18150.
(you have only inflated it for one year, but there will be two years inflation)
May 18, 2014 at 2:41 pm
ok cool! Thanks
April 23, 2014 at 6:17 am
I Can’t Understand Why you have not Treated with FIXED OVERHEADS in this Calculation?
April 23, 2014 at 8:34 pm
Fixed overheads are only relevant if the total changes. Simply absorbing (or charging) the total fixed overheads differently does not mean that the total changes.
I do stress this in my lecture.
February 14, 2014 at 4:13 pm
Hi Sir, I got a bit confused and did not understand the last bit of this lecture regarding the loss relief?
February 14, 2014 at 4:43 pm
I was just saying that for F9, loss relief is not relevant.
If they make profits they pay tax, if they make losses they save tax.
February 14, 2014 at 5:53 pm
So, for yr 1, the adjusted profit is 401 and C.A of 700, hence the tax savings of 75, how about for year 2? Is it a loss or profit?
February 14, 2014 at 10:25 pm
Is what a loss or a profit? Why do you care anyway?
In year 1 there is a cash profit of 401 and so tax payable of 100 at time 2.
There is tax saving from capital allowances at time 2 of 175.
In year 2 there is a cash profit of 435 and so the tax on this is 109 payable at time 2.
There is also a tax saving from capital allowances of 131.
November 23, 2013 at 6:04 pm
M Fauzi says
July 5, 2013 at 5:45 am
Such a clear lecture from a great lecturer!! Many, many thanks.
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