View all ACCA Paper F9 lectures >> | This ACCA F9 lecture is based on OpenTuition course notes, view or download lecture notes here>> |

### Comments

### Leave a Reply

You must be logged in to post a comment.

OpenTuition.com Free resources for accountancy students

Free ACCA lectures and course notes | ACCA AAT FIA resources and forums | ACCA Global Community

Samoar says

Serious problem:

I have been trying for 2 days, 5 hours in total, but cannot watch any of the lectures. The rest of the site is doing fine.

On my Google Chrome browser, I have increased the font size as otherwise I get a headache. Could that be the problem?

What can I do?

PLEASE HELP !!

John Moffat says

The lectures are all working fine, so the problem is definitely at your end.

Best is to go to the support page (the link to it is above). If the suggestions there do not sort out the problem then leave another message on that page and admin will try and help you.

Samoar says

Thanks

Rana Mateen says

Sir i want to ask from where we can get inflation rate which we can use for our investment appraisals in real practical life?

John Moffat says

Well…..there are really two answers to this.

With regard to a general inflation rate it is impossible to know for certain but countries do make ‘predictions’ and so we would have to use that.

With regard however to the inflation applicable to specific flows, then it is really down to estimates.

It is impossible to predict inflation precisely (just as it is impossible to be able to predict cash flows precisely, even without inflation). All decisions have to be based on estimates and therefore it is impossible to make ‘perfect’ decisions.

fahad says

i apologize for asking this silly question umm for capital allowance why is it not written in year 1 column ? it starts from the first year till it is sold so why it’s not written in year 1-3 ?

John Moffat says

The first capital allowances are indeed calculated at the end of the first year (i.e. time 1).

However, the second to last line of the question says that the tax is 1 year in arrears.

As a result, the benefit of the capital allowances will not occur until 1 year later – i.e. time 2.

mani1 says

why you did not incorporate inflation in year 1 for sales?… its a little bit confusing point for me otherwise great lecture …..

mani1 says

sorry i should have read the question carefully it is mentioned in question that the new product will be sold 20p.u in the first year…sorry my mistake…

Emil says

Mr Moffat, I’m confused about tax. Please, could you clarify for me how tax savings can be more than tax paid? What does it mean in real life?

John Moffat says

We always assume that the business is already making profits from other sources, and is therefore already paying tax.

As a result, a ‘loss’ in any year from this investment isn’t really a loss, it simply reduces the profits they are already making and therefore saves tax they would otherwise have been paying.

acca2050 says

Hey John,

Here is a confusion with Bpp question for inflation:

I figured-out everything almost correct somewhere, but the working capital is really disturbing me. I share you portion of the question and also answer for that portion:

Inc/Dec. in working capitals are as follows:

Year 0: 20×3= +20000

Year 1: 20×4= +10000

Year 2: 20×5= -15000

Year 3: 20×5= -15000

The inflation is to be increased by 10%( applied to 20×4 and onwards). The project is 3years.

What I did:

20×3 year forward to 20×4= 30000 * 1.10 = 33000 ( this is correct)

BUT

20×5 = -15000 * 1.10 = -16500 +33000 = 16500 ( Incorrect )

same for 20×6

What Book did:

20×3 20×4 20×5 20×6

$ $ $ $

Investment @20X3 prices 20,000 30,000 15,000 0

Investment @inflated prices 20,000 33,000 18,150 0

Year Move @inflated prices (20,000) (13,000) 14,850 18150

I am curious how 18150 and onward figures arrive

Many Thanks

acca2050 says

Oops I think this part is confusing to read: WHAT BOOK DID:

I’m doing it again here for easy reading:

I’m convinced for till year 20X4, lets start onward periods;

20X5:

Investment @20X3 prices: $15000

Investment @inflated prices: $18150

Year Move @inflated prices: $14850

20X6:

Investment @20X3 prices: $0

Investment @inflated prices: $0

Year Move @inflated prices: $18150

John Moffat says

I will answer, but please post questions like this in the Ask the Tutor Forum for Paper F9 – not here, which is for comments on the lecture.

Without inflation, the requirement at time 2 is 15,000.

But there will be two years inflation at 10%, so the actual requirement will be 15,000 x 1.1 x 1.1 = 18150.

(you have only inflated it for one year, but there will be two years inflation)

acca2050 says

ok cool! Thanks

hamzaharoon says

Hi Sir,

I Can’t Understand Why you have not Treated with FIXED OVERHEADS in this Calculation?

John Moffat says

Fixed overheads are only relevant if the total changes. Simply absorbing (or charging) the total fixed overheads differently does not mean that the total changes.

I do stress this in my lecture.

Tyler says

Hi Sir, I got a bit confused and did not understand the last bit of this lecture regarding the loss relief?

John Moffat says

I was just saying that for F9, loss relief is not relevant.

If they make profits they pay tax, if they make losses they save tax.

Tyler says

So, for yr 1, the adjusted profit is 401 and C.A of 700, hence the tax savings of 75, how about for year 2? Is it a loss or profit?

John Moffat says

Is what a loss or a profit? Why do you care anyway?

In year 1 there is a cash profit of 401 and so tax payable of 100 at time 2.

There is tax saving from capital allowances at time 2 of 175.

In year 2 there is a cash profit of 435 and so the tax on this is 109 payable at time 2.

There is also a tax saving from capital allowances of 131.

sdmaalex says

Fantastic Lecture!

M Fauzi says

Such a clear lecture from a great lecturer!! Many, many thanks.