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November 24, 2015 at 8:49 pm
In the alternative method isn’t the net operating flow 6 (20-16) instead of 60?
John Moffat says
November 25, 2015 at 7:00 am
No – it is 200 – 140 = 60
November 14, 2015 at 5:15 pm
Wonderful lecture Sir. Just a small observation. If you just calculate 1.05/1.15 you get 9.13%, rounded to 9%. Then you discount at 2.531 and the NPV is +31.86 which is much closer to the initial +32.
November 14, 2015 at 5:25 pm
Never mind. its clarified when we use the fomula
October 22, 2015 at 8:16 am
Hi Mr. Moffat, do we ever round down instead of up? For example, 9.52% becomes 10%, had it been 9.22 would it still round up to 10% or would we round down to 9%?
October 22, 2015 at 8:23 am
You round to the nearest – so 9.22 would be rounded to 9%
September 15, 2015 at 3:26 am
what will happen to the cash flows if they are different in each of the five years and these cash flows are before taken account of general inflation.
eg yr 1=10000, yr2=15000, yr 3 17000 and so on. inflation is at the rate of 6.2%.
September 15, 2015 at 8:04 am
You use the same logic.
The actual cash flow at time 1 is 10,000 x 1.062
The actual cash flow at time 2 is 15,000 x 1.062^2
The actual cash flow at time 3 is 17,000 x 1.062^3
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