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ACCA F9 lectures ACCA F9 notes
May 2, 2015 at 10:54 pm
I seem to be having an issue with the spot rate to choose.
In this example, don’t we need to sell dollar when calculating the (now)value in pounds?
Please do advise me. I did get previous work examples right so I am a bit confused here.
John Moffat says
May 3, 2015 at 10:42 am
You do not say which of the examples in this lecture you are referring to!!
In the first example, we want to put $’s on deposit and so we need to buy $’s now in order to be able to.
May 9, 2015 at 8:39 am
Ah ok. I’ve got it.
It was example 7. sorry.
Thank you very much!
April 30, 2015 at 8:42 am
can u explain about futures ?
April 30, 2015 at 8:52 am
I can and I do!!!
Why don’t you watch the remaining lectures on foreign exchange risk
April 22, 2015 at 7:23 pm
I did not find the exam question in the lecture notes. could you please help me to find?
April 22, 2015 at 8:20 pm
The first example is Example 7 on page 126 of the Lecture Notes.
The second one is an old exam question that I am afraid is no longer available on the ACCA website.
April 21, 2015 at 8:42 pm
where is the exam question that u did in the video lecture plz?? i cant find it in the lecture notes!!
December 1, 2014 at 8:50 pm
That is correct, although I do not know why you have typed this
It is just repeating what is in the lecture.
December 1, 2014 at 8:28 pm
The way I understand it is if we have an asset (which will be money coming in in 3 months time, we have to create a liability in the currency we will be receiving…..eg if we are expecting a payment 0f 300,000 pounds and we are in the US….if the pounds interest rate (borrowing) is 15% pa….we are going to borrow 289156.63…..(15/12 multiply by 3 = 3.75% – which is .0375 —-( 300,000 pounds divided by 1.0375 = 289156.63). We then convert to US at the spot rate and deposit for 3 months at the US deposit rate. At the end of the 3 months, we are owing exactly 300000 pounds.
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