Sir,in the above lecture while explaining example 4 you stated that T PLC is fully equity financed but it is not relevant. Why is that?capm only measures systematic risks so surely it can’t include risks of a particular business due to its gearing..so while using capm formula we have to assume that the particular investment is fully equity financed.sir please clarify it..I’m bit confused

The beta of a share depends on both the risk of the business and the gearing risk. The higher the gearing, the more risky the share, and therefore the higher will be the beta of the share. The CAPM formula certainly does not assume that an investment is fully equity financed.

You told us several ways to calculate the cost of equity depending on the info given such as using the beta or using the dividend growth model. Is there any other way that the examiner can ask us to calculate the cost of equity or the shareholders required rate of return which I think is one and the same thing.

And whatever the cost of equity through either method, we just discount it at that rate, right.

There are no other ways of calculating the cost of equity.

With regard to your last sentence, I don’t know what you are referring to – discount what at that rate?? If you mean discount the expected dividends at that rate to get the market value, then the answer is yes.

hello sir,
would u mind to explain me again , what is market return means, ? is it something like , for the same share market gives a avg return of x%?
thanks

Dear John,
Its quite easy and logical. what is project-specific and marginal cost of capital…and if waac is not suitable for unsimilar business risk situation, then is it same to simple interest rate( cost of cap.)?

I am not completely sure what you mean (‘is it same to simple interest rate….’).

Usually we discount at the WACC, and this assumes that the gearing is remaining unchanged and that the business risk is remaining unchanged.

You can be asked to deal with the situation we the business risk is changing. To do this we need to obtain an asset beta for the project (which is the measure of the riskiness); then we have to calculate an equity beta from the asset beta (using the existing gearing of the company); then we use that to calculate a cost of equity for the project (the project-specific cost of equity).
Usually that is all that is required in the exam. However, if you were asked for it, in order to find an appraisal rate we then calculate a WACC for the project in the normal way, but using the project specific cost of equity (already calculated) in the calculation.

Thanks John. Enjoyed the lecture. Though I think the lecture title is a little misplaced. It doesnt combine MM and CAPM. The example done is in the CAPM chapter

Dear John,
I got kind of confused. Why is that cost of equity is Re? When we say investing in project, do we mean investing in other companies shares? And can you please explain what you mean by calculating an asset beta from an equity beta (and vice versa). Thanks a lot.

The cost of equity is whatever rate of return shareholders are requiring.

If shareholders want a return of (say) 10%, then the company has to be able to pay them 10%. When appraising a project we need to make sure that the project gives enough to pay the lenders and that is what the WACC is (and the calculation of it take the cost of equity and the cost of debt into account).

Beta is a measure of risk. The reason shares are risky is partly because of the nature of the business – some businesses are more risky than others – and partly because of the gearing (gearing makes shares more risky).

The equity beta measures the risk of a share (and therefore includes the effect of any gearing). The asset beta measures the risk of the business itself (excluding any gearing). We can get from one to the other using the formula on the formula sheet.

Thank you, I got what you are saying, but there is one more thing I would like to clarify. So when calculating return from CAPM model, we get a return which takes into account the riskiness of the project. Shall we get the same when using DVM, because as I understand, it assumes return will remain unchanged for future projects.

In a perfect world, DVM and CAPM should give the same required return (therefore the same cost of equity).

However they are unlikely to be the same in practice because of the assumptions and estimates that are needed in both the calculations.

CAPM is regarded as giving a better estimate of the cost of equity than DVM.
(In the exam you obviously use whichever method is required in the question).

Hi Stacy, , you get $1.39 because of in your workings you wrote 14.8-0.03 . it should be 0.148- 0.03 instead. try it , you will realize it, common mistake when we do it fast…

@staceyhowe, Hi Stacy, , you get $1.39 because of in your workings you wrote 14.8-0.03 . it should be 0.148- 0.03 instead. try it , you will realize it, common mistake when we do it fastâ€¦

Here return to shareholders, E(ri) is equal to cost of capital of the new project.

I thought the question was asking for the minimum cash flow requirement in perpetuity for the project to be acceptable, in that case nearly 13,000 will give npv is zero, where project can be accepted.On that basis, 15,000 pa for ever is acceptable straight away as it gives a NPV of 15385 positive.

A nice example to integrate investment appraisal and CAPM.

Tharuka says

Sir,in the above lecture while explaining example 4 you stated that T PLC is fully equity financed but it is not relevant. Why is that?capm only measures systematic risks so surely it can’t include risks of a particular business due to its gearing..so while using capm formula we have to assume that the particular investment is fully equity financed.sir please clarify it..I’m bit confused

John Moffat says

The beta of a share depends on both the risk of the business and the gearing risk. The higher the gearing, the more risky the share, and therefore the higher will be the beta of the share. The CAPM formula certainly does not assume that an investment is fully equity financed.

Tharuka says

Thank you sir..

John Moffat says

You are welcome đź™‚

Arun says

Hi John,

You told us several ways to calculate the cost of equity depending on the info given such as using the beta or using the dividend growth model. Is there any other way that the examiner can ask us to calculate the cost of equity or the shareholders required rate of return which I think is one and the same thing.

And whatever the cost of equity through either method, we just discount it at that rate, right.

Thanks.

John Moffat says

There are no other ways of calculating the cost of equity.

With regard to your last sentence, I don’t know what you are referring to – discount what at that rate?? If you mean discount the expected dividends at that rate to get the market value, then the answer is yes.

arman90fy says

hello sir,

would u mind to explain me again , what is market return means, ? is it something like , for the same share market gives a avg return of x%?

thanks

John Moffat says

It is the overall return on the stock exchange – the average of the returns of all the shares on the stock exchange.

arman90fy says

got it. thank you sir

padmanaveen says

hello sir,

whatever video i open it repeats the video of Interest rate risk part a…

kindly help

Thanks

opentuition_team says

try another browser – your internet provider it seems might be blocking the streams. if all fails, use Tor Browser

acca2050 says

Dear John,

Its quite easy and logical. what is project-specific and marginal cost of capital…and if waac is not suitable for unsimilar business risk situation, then is it same to simple interest rate( cost of cap.)?

John Moffat says

I am not completely sure what you mean (‘is it same to simple interest rate….’).

Usually we discount at the WACC, and this assumes that the gearing is remaining unchanged and that the business risk is remaining unchanged.

You can be asked to deal with the situation we the business risk is changing. To do this we need to obtain an asset beta for the project (which is the measure of the riskiness); then we have to calculate an equity beta from the asset beta (using the existing gearing of the company); then we use that to calculate a cost of equity for the project (the project-specific cost of equity).

Usually that is all that is required in the exam. However, if you were asked for it, in order to find an appraisal rate we then calculate a WACC for the project in the normal way, but using the project specific cost of equity (already calculated) in the calculation.

Ahmed says

Thanks John. Enjoyed the lecture. Though I think the lecture title is a little misplaced. It doesnt combine MM and CAPM. The example done is in the CAPM chapter

John Moffat says

No – the title is correct.

Calculating an asset beta from an equity beta (and vice versa) is actually Modigliani and Miller.

Lilit says

Dear John,

I got kind of confused. Why is that cost of equity is Re? When we say investing in project, do we mean investing in other companies shares? And can you please explain what you mean by calculating an asset beta from an equity beta (and vice versa). Thanks a lot.

John Moffat says

The cost of equity is whatever rate of return shareholders are requiring.

If shareholders want a return of (say) 10%, then the company has to be able to pay them 10%. When appraising a project we need to make sure that the project gives enough to pay the lenders and that is what the WACC is (and the calculation of it take the cost of equity and the cost of debt into account).

Beta is a measure of risk. The reason shares are risky is partly because of the nature of the business – some businesses are more risky than others – and partly because of the gearing (gearing makes shares more risky).

The equity beta measures the risk of a share (and therefore includes the effect of any gearing). The asset beta measures the risk of the business itself (excluding any gearing). We can get from one to the other using the formula on the formula sheet.

Lilit says

Thank you, I got what you are saying, but there is one more thing I would like to clarify. So when calculating return from CAPM model, we get a return which takes into account the riskiness of the project. Shall we get the same when using DVM, because as I understand, it assumes return will remain unchanged for future projects.

John Moffat says

In a perfect world, DVM and CAPM should give the same required return (therefore the same cost of equity).

However they are unlikely to be the same in practice because of the assumptions and estimates that are needed in both the calculations.

CAPM is regarded as giving a better estimate of the cost of equity than DVM.

(In the exam you obviously use whichever method is required in the question).

ahmed says

Hi John, In your 1st example I still don’t get $1.75. I always get $1.39 even if i do 0.148-0.03

John Moffat says

But the first example in this lecture is calculating the beta of the share, so I don’t really know where you are getting these figures from!

harryamoatey says

plz the video does not function when using mozilla, could u check it plz.

John Moffat says

The video is working fine – check the technical support page. The link is above.

harryamoatey says

plz JOHN, am sorry for disturbing u, the problem was with my player, i have updated it and the video is working fine.

Matseliso says

can I download these lectures

opentuition_team says

lectures are on line only

Ken says

very nice.thanks again

jonathan83 says

Hi Stacy, , you get $1.39 because of in your workings you wrote 14.8-0.03 . it should be 0.148- 0.03 instead. try it , you will realize it, common mistake when we do it fast…

cheerios

staceyhowe says

In your 1st example I can not get $1.75 no matter what I do all I keep getting $1.39. What am I doing wrong?

jonathan83 says

@staceyhowe, Hi Stacy, , you get $1.39 because of in your workings you wrote 14.8-0.03 . it should be 0.148- 0.03 instead. try it , you will realize it, common mistake when we do it fastâ€¦

Ken says

@staceyhowe, hello, how was your exam?

funlover says

Here return to shareholders, E(ri) is equal to cost of capital of the new project.

I thought the question was asking for the minimum cash flow requirement in perpetuity for the project to be acceptable, in that case nearly 13,000 will give npv is zero, where project can be accepted.On that basis, 15,000 pa for ever is acceptable straight away as it gives a NPV of 15385 positive.

A nice example to integrate investment appraisal and CAPM.