I read the reply to what Rachel already asked, but I am still a bit confused with the question no. 2. Even if the buyer pays the seller cash, if the seller fails to deliver the goods to the buyer, I think there will be a dispute in terms of delivery (regardless of ‘who owns the goods’) between the two parties… so I think this case should fall in the scope of UNCISG… Could you tell me what is wrong with my understanding? Thank you! 🙂
In question 2, is the answer which involves the National Government buying goods for war incorrect because the National Government is a “legal authority? Additionally, why is the answer “the buyer is to receive title to the goods just as soon as the purchase price has been paid to the seller’s bank account” incorrect?
Finally, in the last question, why is the shop keeper’s response of “no legal significance” is is because it’s simply an invitation?
Very simply, where a government takes goods because of something like war, the UN Convention doesn’t apply
“the buyer is to ….” is incorrect because it’s a cash sale – there’s no concept of dispute ….. I pay you cash and you deliver the goods to me
re the last question, if you ask me the price of a good and I tell you, my response is simply that! It’s a response to a question. It’s not an invitation, nor an offer, nor a counter-offer nor an acceptance. It’s just me answering your question
The answer of the Question 3) :”…………..In the context of contract law an offer is sufficiently definite proposal …….” is wrong . Here you said must be made to specific individual . But According to article 14 (ref:BPP f4 text book) an offer is Sufficiently definite when : 1) it indicates the goods in question 2) It makes provisions for price and quantity of the goods . S the right answer should be “Indicates the goods involve” Am I right Sir ?
The answer of the Question 3) :”…………..In the context of contract law an offer is sufficiently definite proposal …….” is wrong . Here you said must be made to specific individual . But According to article 14 (ref:BPP f4 text book) an offer is Sufficiently definite when : 1) it indicates the goods in question 2) It makes provisions for price and quantity of the goods . S the right answer should be “Indicates the goods involve”
I read the reply to what Rachel already asked, but I am still a bit confused with the question no. 2. Even if the buyer pays the seller cash, if the seller fails to deliver the goods to the buyer, I think there will be a dispute in terms of delivery (regardless of ‘who owns the goods’) between the two parties… so I think this case should fall in the scope of UNCISG… Could you tell me what is wrong with my understanding? Thank you! 🙂
John,
In question 2, is the answer which involves the National Government buying goods for war incorrect because the National Government is a “legal authority? Additionally, why is the answer “the buyer is to receive title to the goods just as soon as the purchase price has been paid to the seller’s bank account” incorrect?
Finally, in the last question, why is the shop keeper’s response of “no legal significance” is is because it’s simply an invitation?
Very simply, where a government takes goods because of something like war, the UN Convention doesn’t apply
“the buyer is to ….” is incorrect because it’s a cash sale – there’s no concept of dispute ….. I pay you cash and you deliver the goods to me
re the last question, if you ask me the price of a good and I tell you, my response is simply that! It’s a response to a question. It’s not an invitation, nor an offer, nor a counter-offer nor an acceptance. It’s just me answering your question
OK?
The answer of the Question 3) :”…………..In the context of contract law an offer is sufficiently definite proposal …….” is wrong . Here you said must be made to specific individual . But According to article 14 (ref:BPP f4 text book) an offer is Sufficiently definite when :
1) it indicates the goods in question
2) It makes provisions for price and quantity of the goods .
S the right answer should be “Indicates the goods involve”
Am I right Sir ?
No, I don’t believe that you are
The question asks which is potentially incorrect and the answer is therefore:
“It must be made to a specified individual” because this is NOT a requirement of a valid offer
Q.3 Answer………why not the last one?
Why not the last one?
The answers get jumbled up each time the question is asked so you’ll need to tell me which one you think it should be
Q.3 Answer should be……..”Indicates the intention and willingness of the person making the offer to be bound upon acceptance of the offer”
The answer of the Question 3) :”…………..In the context of contract law an offer is sufficiently definite proposal …….” is wrong . Here you said must be made to specific individual . But According to article 14 (ref:BPP f4 text book) an offer is Sufficiently definite when :
1) it indicates the goods in question
2) It makes provisions for price and quantity of the goods .
S the right answer should be “Indicates the goods involve”