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ACCA F2 / FIA FMA lectures Download ACCA F2 notes
December 24, 2015 at 2:36 pm
great lecture except for the examples!! Beer, cigarette & pigs!
John Moffat says
December 25, 2015 at 9:02 am
December 2, 2015 at 12:12 pm
Thanks for your great lectures. I have already went through this series of lectures, but i was wondering why we only talk about normal losses and not normal gains?
December 2, 2015 at 2:16 pm
A normal gain is not possible – I don’t think there are many products where more comes out than you put in 🙂
(Certainly not in Paper F2!)
(And don’t forget that an abnormal gain only occurs because the loss/waste less than expected – it not because we produce more than we put in.)
October 7, 2015 at 1:09 pm
Sir Can you Please Tell me that which Book and Edition has been used for these Lectures?
Means BPP, KAPLAN, GTG or BECKERS And What Edition 2014, 2013, 2012, 2010 or Else?
October 7, 2015 at 1:30 pm
We use our own Lecture Notes!!
There is a link above the lecture for you to be able to download them.
(And why on earth would you think we use a 2010 edition of anything?!! Our lectures are always up to date for the current syllabus. If you start at the beginning and work through them then you do not need a Study Text – they are a complete course.)
August 21, 2015 at 10:11 pm
thankyou mr john maffat ur too good
February 21, 2015 at 7:42 pm
The working that was given for this question was a bit confusing. It came from my ACCA text. Could you assist?
A chemical is manufactured in two processes, X and Y. Data for process Y for last month are as follows.
Material transferred from process X 2000 liters @ $4 per litre
Conversion costs incurred $12,240
Output transferred to finished goods 1600 liters
No losses occur in the process.
Closing work in progress is fully complete for material, but is only 50% processed.
What is the value of the closing work in progress (to the nearest $)?
February 21, 2015 at 8:23 pm
Please ask questions in the Ask the Tutor Forum – not as a comment on a lecture.
June 15, 2015 at 12:53 pm
hello sir, where does the $51300 come from?
June 15, 2015 at 12:59 pm
The total of the costs (as in the question in the lecture notes) is 52,800.
The question also say that the losses have a scrap value of $5 per unit. So with a normal loss of 300 kg there is expected scrap proceeds of 1,500.
52,800 – 1,500 = 51,300
June 15, 2015 at 2:00 pm
oh thank you very much sir
December 9, 2013 at 7:03 pm
Could you explain how you can do the calculation without the output units
The following data relate to a process:
The normal loss is 3% of input and all losses are sold as scrap for $8 per unit.
This period the actual loss is 80 units. There is no work-in-progress.
What is the total value of the finished units this period.
December 10, 2013 at 7:23 am
You cannot do this without knowing how many units were output (or alternatively. how many units were input – you can then work out how many were output).
Also, of course, you need more information about the costs to be able to value the finished units!
December 10, 2013 at 9:47 am
I saw this question in the mock exam on the open tuition mock exam and i did not see an option in the answer to say that the question needed more information.
December 10, 2013 at 9:56 am
You have only typed a tiny bit of the question. The question says against materials how many units are input (and so you can calculate the output). The question also tells you all the costs.
December 10, 2013 at 10:07 am
There is no other parts to the question just the options for the answers
December 10, 2013 at 10:10 am
I have just checked – the whole question is there!
December 10, 2013 at 10:15 am
I am just seeing that the question i posted did not include the top section showing the input units and costs. Sorry about that but in any case how is that calculation without the output units
December 10, 2013 at 11:04 am
Since you know how many units were input, and you know how many were actually lost, then the difference is the output.
December 10, 2013 at 12:07 pm
So would this calculation be correct
Normal loss 2000* 3% = 60
Expected output 2000-60 = 1940
Abnormal loss 80-60 = 20
Cost per unit: (4000 – 60) + 3120/1940 = $3.63
Out put 1940 * $3.63 = $7042, Normal loss 60 * $8 = $480, Abnormal loss 20 * $8 = $160
Therefore $7042 + $480 + $160 = $7682
December 10, 2013 at 12:14 pm
This question also came from the mock test.
I know that once the return on investment is lower than cost of capital then the residual income will decrease but do you reason out the return on investment part of it
An investment division earns a return on investment of 15% and a residual income of $200,000. The cost of capital is 18%. A new project gives a return on capital employed of 16%.
If the new project is accepted, what will happen to the investment division’s return on investment and
Could you provide guidance how to answer this question as well.
1. A company manufactures a single product. Budgeted production for the first three months of next year is as follows:
Each unit uses 4kg of raw material costing $5 per kg.. The budgeted raw material inventory at the end of each months is to be 20% of the following month’s production.
What are the budgeted raw material purchases for month 2 of next year?
2. At the start of the year a company employed 2,000 employees.
During the year 400 employees left the company.
At the end of the year there were 2,200 employed.
What was the labour turnover rate for the year (to the nearest %)?
my issue was to determine the number of replacements with this one
3. What would be the effects on the EOQ and the total annual order cost of an increase in the holding cost per unit.
I can figure the EOQ section cause i plug in figures to help me but not sure about the annual holding cost bit
December 10, 2013 at 12:19 pm
Guidance on this well too. i figured P but cannot get Q at all.
Two investments are available. Investment P offers interest of 5% per year compounded half-yearly for a period of 4 years. Investment Q offers one interest payment of 18% at the end of its 4 year life.
What is the annual effective interest rate offered by each of the two investments?
It would have been nice if the system showed how the answers were derived so students can know where they went wrong in procedures.
December 10, 2013 at 2:56 pm
Process costing: If the question asks you to value the finished units, why have you valued the losses also?
Return on investment: The new project gives a return that is higher than the current ROI, so the ROI will increase.
Budgeting: you have not typed what the production is for the first three months of next year, so it is impossible to answer.
Employees: if 400 left, and there were more employees at the end of the year than at the beginning, it must mean that all 400 were replaced.
EOQ: The question does not ask about the annual holding cost – it asks about the annual order cost. Since the EOQ will be smaller, there will have to be more orders, so the annual order cost will increase.
Interest: If r is the annual interest rate, the (1+r)^4 = 1.18
PLEASE: do not post all these questions under a lecture on Process Costing. This section is for comments on the lecture.
If you have other questions then post them on the Ask ACCA Tutor forum.
December 10, 2013 at 8:18 pm
could you really please answer the process costing question cause i just cant seem to figure out hiw to derive the cost per unit
December 10, 2013 at 8:29 pm
I have figured it out now. Normal loss 2000 *3% = 60
Expected output 2000-60 =1940, output 2000-80 = 1920
Normal loss 60 * $8 = 480. Cost per unit 4000 -480 +3120 + 1120/1940 = $4
Finish goods 1920 *$4 = 7680
December 10, 2013 at 3:26 pm
Sorry about the questions in the wrong forum. I valued the losses as that was the only i could come close to the correct answer given by the system. I am confused about it
September 29, 2013 at 8:14 pm
John, you are the best! Many many thanks for the good lectures! They are truly helpful. God bless you very much.
September 29, 2013 at 8:11 pm
John, you are the best! Many many many thanks! God bless you for good work!
September 25, 2013 at 7:26 pm
March 29, 2013 at 11:49 pm
you are the best teacher,i am so saturated by your lectures that i am only listening in to learn your upper class english accent.thanks a million and keep up the good work
March 30, 2013 at 4:59 pm
Thank you very much, but my accent is certainly not upper class!! I am originally from Manchester and we are not upper class in Manchester 🙂
March 29, 2014 at 7:46 pm
…so it isn’t only me then 🙂 I totally agree. Killing two birds with one stone. Pleasure to listen to and a breeze to understand the topic (with a few giggles on the way). Superb!
March 22, 2013 at 12:47 am
why cant play the video?
March 4, 2013 at 9:05 pm
Brilliant! thanks so much!
December 17, 2012 at 3:06 pm
this is magnificent
December 12, 2012 at 6:17 am
should not be assumption there that 1 unit contains 1 kg of material(a unit=a kg)? Because, under heading kg you say units..
December 12, 2012 at 7:05 pm
@gahraman, I say at the beginning of the lecture that in this example it is in kg rather than in units. The same happens in the examination.
December 2, 2012 at 6:44 pm
where is the loss a/c?
December 12, 2012 at 7:04 pm
@adnanaadi101, What loss account? There is no loss account unless there are abnormal losses or gains. Watch the later lectures where there are abnormal losses and gains.
October 27, 2012 at 5:43 am
October 15, 2012 at 7:36 pm
“Happy Happy”…. You deserve a high 5 lecturer, this is superb!
September 5, 2012 at 4:33 pm
Short Class very interesting with more simplicity .Thanks you Opentuition Team.
M. Osman Kamran says
July 23, 2012 at 6:20 am
May 7, 2012 at 1:24 am
I love these lectures. Thank you
May 6, 2012 at 3:11 am
i cant get this video to play
April 24, 2012 at 9:41 am
very clear understandable and enjoyable
March 19, 2012 at 8:58 pm
The course notes and the lecture both explain this.
In example 1, the losses have no sale value.
In example 2, the losses are sold for $5 a kg and any sale proceeds of normal losses are subtracted from the costs (i.e. treated as a negative cost)
March 25, 2012 at 12:56 pm
@johnmoffat, Thanks I have got it now.
December 2, 2014 at 11:31 am
Why we subtract scrap value? I don’t get the logic, because we are getting some money from it even it is loss? I am so confused
December 2, 2014 at 11:37 am
The fact we are getting some money from it is why we subtract it from the costs – it reduces the cost of what is produced.
December 3, 2014 at 8:47 am
March 19, 2012 at 5:08 pm
In the Example # 2 the 300 KG of Normal loss whose value will be 1500$ (300* 5$) but why this value 1500 $ has been subtracted from the value 52800 $? Explain this.Because in the example #1 the Value of Normal loss was not subtracted only the kg value was subtracted.
July 23, 2012 at 6:18 am
@maniali272, Because in the second example the damaged material will be sold per Kg $5.
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