1. avatar says


    May I know the answer of question 9?

    I think
    1.depreciation of maintenance equipment – Is indirect cost
    2. The overtime premium incurred at the specific request of a customer
    – direct cost
    3. The hire of a tool for a specific job – indirect cost

    Thank you

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      If you look at the contents page of the course notes, you will see that at the end of the notes are the answers to all of the examples, and to all of the test questions!!

      The answer is A.

      (The hire of the tool is a direct cost because it is for a specific job)

      • avatar says

        Thanks so much sir !

        But I am still confused about the third one. I think the hire of a tool is the same as buying a new machine.

        Can we allocate the cost of hiring tools to certain units?

      • Profile photo of John Moffat says

        Hiring is only like renting and it is being used for a specific job – so it can be allocated to that one job (rather than it being spread over all the work).

  2. avatar says

    I don’t get answer for the question below.Would you please help me to solve it?

    An organisation operates a piecework system of remuneration, but also guarantees its employees 80% of a
    time-based rate of pay which is based on $20 per hour for an eight hour working day. Three minutes is the
    standard time allowed per unit of output. Piecework is paid at the rate of $18 per standard hour.
    If an employee produces 200 units in eight hours on a particular day, what is the employee’s gross pay
    for that day?
    A $128
    B $144
    C $160
    D $180

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      Because the standard time is 3 minutes per unit, the total standard time for 200 units is 200 x 3 / 60 = 100 hours. They are paid 18 per standard hour, which gives a total of 100 x $18 = $180.

      The guaranteed minimum is 8 hours x $20 =
      $160, but this is lower than $180 so the pay is $180.

      Hope that all makes sense :-)

      • avatar says

        By the way, 200 X 3/60 comes to 10, not 100 (and 10 x 18 = 180)

        Anyhow, if it’s an 8 hr day, how can he be paid for working 10 hrs?


      • Profile photo of John Moffat says

        OK – sorry, it was a typing mistake (but the answer is the same).

        The reason he is paid for 10 hours is because he is being paid for piecework – he is being paid according to how many units he manages to produce. He does not work for 10 hours, but because he produces as many units as he does, the time allowed (the standard time) is 10 hours and so this is what they will pay him for.

        It is a very sensible way of paying workers – to tell them that the faster they work (and therefore the more they produce) then the more they will be paid.

  3. avatar says

    i did it another way which i think is less complicated and less time consuming as well.

    i’ve been looking for the variable cost per unit= {(170000-5000)-13000}/22000-160000=$5

    TC= 135,000
    VC= (80,000) =(16000*$5)
    FC= 55,000

    @20000 units= FC+SF+VC
    55,000+ 5,000+(20,000*5) =$160,000 Ans

    we avoid that part of 16000units and 4000unit and with that we need to add the SF its confusing rather work it as a whole. its my point of view but the lecture is very nice. thanks

  4. avatar says

    Hi. I can’t understand the explanations for question one. Why is the extra 5000 deducted from the difference in cost? Is the difference in cost always a fixed cost? When it says exceeds 17500 units, is it in the total or the highest activity level only?

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      As I explained in my answer to your question yesterday, the difference is usually due to the extra variable cost of the extra units – the total fixed costs normally stay fixed (by definition).

      However, in this question there is a stepped fixed cost – the fixed cost increases when the activity is more than 17,500 units.
      Since the higher of the two activity levels (22000) is higher than 17500, the fixed costs must be higher than the fixed costs at the lower level (16000).

      So….since the step up is $5000, then $5000 of the difference is due to the higher fixed costs. The rest of the difference is, as normal, the extra variable cost of the extra units.

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      Just suppose that you make 10,000 units and the variable cost is $5 per unit and the fixed cost is $10,000.
      Then the total cost is (10000 x $5) + $10,000 = $60,000.

      Suppose next month you make 15,000 units. Why should the total cost change? The fixed cost will stay the same, and so the only thing that will change will be the variable cost – an extra $5 for each unit.
      So the total cost would not be (15,000 x $5) + $10,000 = $85,000

      All we are doing with high/low is the same thing backwards.

      The total cost went up by $25,000. The number of units went up by 5,000. Since the only reason for the increase is due to more variable costs, it must mean that $25,000 is the extra variable cost for the extra 5,000 units. So the variable cost per unit is $25,000/5,000 = $5 per unit.

  5. avatar says

    Hi John,

    From the course note in chapter 4, page 17- there got mentioned about the Responsibility centres:
    a) cost centres
    b) profit centres
    c) revenue centres
    d) investment centres

    Why do we need to know about these responsibility centres?

    Thank you.

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      Because it affects the way that we measure the performance of the centre and of the managers.

      (If you want me to answer your question then please in future ask in the Ask the ACCA Tutor Forum for Paper F2)

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