Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FM Financial Management Forums › *** F9 June 2015 Exam was.. Instant Poll and comments ***
- This topic has 735 replies, 152 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by arslan14.
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- June 9, 2015 at 9:44 am #255461
@jimbob1212 said:
do ACCA upscale marks if the overall grades are low?No!
June 9, 2015 at 9:48 am #255463and what about 20th question ?
shares + reserves – current liabilities / number of shares .
2.1 or 2.5 I can’t rememberJune 9, 2015 at 10:47 am #255483AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Hi Guys,
Q3 i calculated cost of finance:
Current was 445800×5% = 222900
Proposed:
26750000 x 35/360 = 2600994
2600994 x 80% x 7% = 145639
2600994 x 20% x 5% = 26009
Total 145639 + 26009 = 171648
Difference 222900 – 171648 = 51252 benefit
Someone did the same way?June 9, 2015 at 10:51 am #255485Q3 i got benefit of 87000
June 9, 2015 at 11:24 am #255493Well, now that the exam is up, I redid the question (sad, aren’t I) and I came up with the same as I had in the exam – not that that makes it right mind!
Wanted really to double check the wording and I still stick with my original feeling since the question did indeed say ‘80% of the value of invoices raised’, not of the new receivables balance. We’ll have to see what John makes of it.
Bit of a relief to see Q2 did ask for company value, not share value so my total value was the right path. No idea whether my actual answers were right as I can’t for the life of me remember what I put. Just recalculated again to compare with John and hoping that what I did now is what I did in the exam.
June 9, 2015 at 11:35 am #255494AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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I had total benefit of 80623 for factor in Q3. anybody the same?
@ Jenny This is really confusing ” 80% of the value of invoices raised”. Lets see 🙂June 9, 2015 at 12:25 pm #255508Yes the wording in Q3 made no sense at all. It did say 80% OF THE VALUE OF INVOICES RAISED, which makes it a ridiculous figure
June 9, 2015 at 12:30 pm #255514Guys, guys, question 3 was taken from bpp book..find it out. There is no problem in the wording. There is just one correct solution to this type of questions
June 9, 2015 at 12:31 pm #255515You should have had: 0.8*26750000*35/360*0.02
June 9, 2015 at 12:32 pm #255516Bpp gives the same example, with the same wording, of invoiced debt…just calculate question 3 using bpp method, you will get benefit of 87000
June 9, 2015 at 12:40 pm #255522AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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@ Gvtft I agree with you on 80% of new Receivable (0.8*26750000*35/360) and mutiplied by difference betwee 7-5 but that about remaining 20%?
June 9, 2015 at 12:43 pm #255525Gosiap, thats why you find the difference between 7 and 5
June 9, 2015 at 12:45 pm #255528I think you just confused the method you used 🙂
June 9, 2015 at 12:52 pm #255529AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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I disagree here
Besides 5% is applicable to old Receivable (4458000)Proposed is based on new ( 26750000*35/360) Receivable where 80% is finance at 7% and the rest on 5%. I think….
June 9, 2015 at 12:54 pm #255531Gosiap, do you have bpp book?
June 9, 2015 at 12:54 pm #255532You mixed two methods
June 9, 2015 at 12:55 pm #255533Gosiap, thats the point, you have to find the increase in financing cost between old and new receivables policy
June 9, 2015 at 12:57 pm #255535Bpp book, page 110
June 9, 2015 at 12:58 pm #255536AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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Lets see soon.. when do you think guys we can get the suggested answers?
June 9, 2015 at 1:00 pm #255537AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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I dont have it with me. whats the question/comapy name?
June 9, 2015 at 1:05 pm #255539It was the receivables management chapter, section where they described factoring. You think right, but you mixed two methods
June 9, 2015 at 1:08 pm #255541Why objective type questions are not up?
June 9, 2015 at 2:30 pm #255552It was a moderate exam but Q 4 difficult
June 9, 2015 at 2:32 pm #255553u r right my friend
June 9, 2015 at 2:43 pm #255556Who is right yosanengistu? 😀
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