Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FM Financial Management Forums › *** F9 June 2015 Exam was.. Instant Poll and comments ***
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- June 9, 2015 at 9:44 am #255461@jimbob1212 said: 
 do ACCA upscale marks if the overall grades are low?No! June 9, 2015 at 9:48 am #255463and what about 20th question ? shares + reserves – current liabilities / number of shares . 
 2.1 or 2.5 I can’t rememberJune 9, 2015 at 10:47 am #255483Anonymous Inactive- Topics: 0
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 Hi Guys, 
 Q3 i calculated cost of finance:
 Current was 445800×5% = 222900
 Proposed:
 26750000 x 35/360 = 2600994
 2600994 x 80% x 7% = 145639
 2600994 x 20% x 5% = 26009
 Total 145639 + 26009 = 171648
 Difference 222900 – 171648 = 51252 benefit
 Someone did the same way?June 9, 2015 at 10:51 am #255485Q3 i got benefit of 87000 June 9, 2015 at 11:24 am #255493Well, now that the exam is up, I redid the question (sad, aren’t I) and I came up with the same as I had in the exam – not that that makes it right mind! Wanted really to double check the wording and I still stick with my original feeling since the question did indeed say ‘80% of the value of invoices raised’, not of the new receivables balance. We’ll have to see what John makes of it. Bit of a relief to see Q2 did ask for company value, not share value so my total value was the right path. No idea whether my actual answers were right as I can’t for the life of me remember what I put. Just recalculated again to compare with John and hoping that what I did now is what I did in the exam. June 9, 2015 at 11:35 am #255494Anonymous Inactive- Topics: 0
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 I had total benefit of 80623 for factor in Q3. anybody the same? 
 @ Jenny This is really confusing ” 80% of the value of invoices raised”. Lets see 🙂June 9, 2015 at 12:25 pm #255508Yes the wording in Q3 made no sense at all. It did say 80% OF THE VALUE OF INVOICES RAISED, which makes it a ridiculous figure June 9, 2015 at 12:30 pm #255514Guys, guys, question 3 was taken from bpp book..find it out. There is no problem in the wording. There is just one correct solution to this type of questions June 9, 2015 at 12:31 pm #255515You should have had: 0.8*26750000*35/360*0.02 June 9, 2015 at 12:32 pm #255516Bpp gives the same example, with the same wording, of invoiced debt…just calculate question 3 using bpp method, you will get benefit of 87000 June 9, 2015 at 12:40 pm #255522Anonymous Inactive- Topics: 0
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 @ Gvtft I agree with you on 80% of new Receivable (0.8*26750000*35/360) and mutiplied by difference betwee 7-5 but that about remaining 20%? June 9, 2015 at 12:43 pm #255525Gosiap, thats why you find the difference between 7 and 5 June 9, 2015 at 12:45 pm #255528I think you just confused the method you used 🙂 June 9, 2015 at 12:52 pm #255529Anonymous Inactive- Topics: 0
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 I disagree here 
 Besides 5% is applicable to old Receivable (4458000)Proposed is based on new ( 26750000*35/360) Receivable where 80% is finance at 7% and the rest on 5%. I think…. June 9, 2015 at 12:54 pm #255531Gosiap, do you have bpp book? June 9, 2015 at 12:54 pm #255532You mixed two methods June 9, 2015 at 12:55 pm #255533Gosiap, thats the point, you have to find the increase in financing cost between old and new receivables policy June 9, 2015 at 12:57 pm #255535Bpp book, page 110 June 9, 2015 at 12:58 pm #255536Anonymous Inactive- Topics: 0
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 Lets see soon.. when do you think guys we can get the suggested answers? June 9, 2015 at 1:00 pm #255537Anonymous Inactive- Topics: 0
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 I dont have it with me. whats the question/comapy name? June 9, 2015 at 1:05 pm #255539It was the receivables management chapter, section where they described factoring. You think right, but you mixed two methods June 9, 2015 at 1:08 pm #255541Why objective type questions are not up? June 9, 2015 at 2:30 pm #255552It was a moderate exam but Q 4 difficult June 9, 2015 at 2:32 pm #255553u r right my friend June 9, 2015 at 2:43 pm #255556Who is right yosanengistu? 😀 
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