In the study text (BPP) and other sources mention that a property that is under construction for future use as Investment Property is treated as Investment property and not as PPE uner IAS 16!! https://www.iasplus.com/en/standards/ias/ias40
I agree with you. IAS 40 specifically gives examples of Investment Property and among others there’s specifically “property under construction for the future use as an investment property”. It also states how to measure Investment Property under construction. It refers to IAS 16 indeed though, in cases when entity can’t measure FV of IP under construction reliably. Maybe that’s what tutor wanted to say?
That despite the fact it’s treated as IP it still will most probably be measured at cost under IAS 16 until it’s ready for use.
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Investment properties should initially be recognised at cost. However, for subsequent measurement we have 2 options under IAS 40, one is cost cost model and the other being fair value model. Once a method has been chosen it should be applied consistently and to all investment properties.
Now, in case of cost model, investment property would be depreciated normally like any other property, plant and equipment. No year end revaluations would be accounted for, unless it is downward, in which we would record an impairment loss(Dr SPL).
The property will be depreciated for the first six-months – $0.5 million. Then Carrying value = $20 million – $0.5 million = $19.5 It’s OK. Then The property is revalued to its fair value of $21 million on 1 July 2015 = $21 million – $19.5 million = gain through other comprehensive income of $1.5 million (Rev. srpl) It’s OK too. Then The property is now classified as investment property and no longer depreciated. It’s OK too. Then It is revalued to a fair value of $21.6 million at the reporting date with the gain of $0.6 million going through profit or loss..
Question. What will be happen with $1.5 million (Rev. srpl) for next years. For example if next year fair value will be a $19 million. Then can we use 21.6-19=2.6 million from $1.5 million (Rev. srpl) I mean Rev.surp will be 0 and the remaining amount 2.6-1.5 = 1.1 million go to profit or loss like loss. Is that right ?
No. IP is revalued at FV through PL. If we have something in OCI it doesn’t give us the right to use it for lowering our current year losses in PL, it would mislead our shareholders on FV losses.
OCI is accumulating PPE revaluations while we own the asset, and only transfers to PL when we sell it. Otherwise we would be showing PL gains and losses while actually not having any, because our PPE is still on our balance sheet.
Same for IP if it was previously a PPE. OCI can only be released to RE when sell IP (see paragraph 62 ii on transfer from PPE to IP of IAS 40):
(ii) any remaining part of the increase is recognised in other comprehensive income and increases the revaluation surplus within equity. On subsequent disposal of the investment property, the revaluation surplus included in equity may be transferred to retained earnings. The transfer from revaluation surplus to retained earnings is not made through profit or loss.
Because of the nature of fair value. No one would buy a property from you for $100 if it’s depreciated to $80 let’s say. Instead, a potential buyer would buy it for $80. So instead of depreciation you account FV loss. Basically FV already includes any impairment or depreciation in it’s idea. IFRS 13 topic will give you more ideas on it.
It’s a simple example that doesn’t include any positive fluctuations on price, but I think it gives an idea.
With reference to the inventory transfer to IP – so we calculate the difference between cost/nrv (depending on what’s lower) and FV and this difference goes to SPL?
Yes. Once it’s in Inventories it should be accounted for at the lowest of Cost or NRV. One of them is considered a Carrying Value.
IAS 40 says that we take the difference between CV and FV, and charge the difference to PL.
Paragraph 63 and 64 of IAS 40: “For a transfer from inventories to investment property that will be carried at fair value, any difference between the fair value of the property at that date and its previous carrying amount shall be recognised in profit or loss. The treatment of transfers from inventories to investment property that will be carried at fair value is consistent with the treatment of sales of inventories.”
Hey, there is no mistake as the change in usage took place half way through the year and so we only have 6 months of depreciation, which is 500 and not 1,000 as you state.
For a change in use from PPE to IP we revalue under IAS 16 before the transfer to IP, therefore the revalution will go through other comprehensive income (revaluation surplus).
Liverpool!! oh yeahh you go Chris, anyways great lectures mate !!
Dear Tutor,
Why haven’t you shown the Revaluation Reserve under SFP for the $1.5m?
In the study text (BPP) and other sources mention that a property that is under construction for future use as Investment Property is treated as Investment property and not as PPE uner IAS 16!!
https://www.iasplus.com/en/standards/ias/ias40
I agree with you. IAS 40 specifically gives examples of Investment Property and among others there’s specifically “property under construction for the future use as an investment property”.
It also states how to measure Investment Property under construction. It refers to IAS 16 indeed though, in cases when entity can’t measure FV of IP under construction reliably. Maybe that’s what tutor wanted to say?
That despite the fact it’s treated as IP it still will most probably be measured at cost under IAS 16 until it’s ready for use.
7 Buying Triggers For Email Marketing
Regardless of in case you’re selling items or administrations disconnected or on the web, your clients need to know, as and trust us before they purchase. As a business you’re building associations with individuals and at last requesting that they purchase. In any case, this is somewhat more confused on the web. There is pretty much nothing, assuming any, immediate face-face contact with a potential client.
Email advertising is as yet considered the best web based showcasing procedure however we despite everything have similar feelings, holding examples, and trust procurement techniques online as we do disconnected.
Here are 7 purchasing triggers that you can use in your email advertising efforts to fabricate trust and associations with your crowd and convert supporters into purchasers.
1. Kinship
You can begin your email battle with an inviting message when someone joins your email list. Thank the individual for joining and on the off chance that you offered a free download, ensure you give the download interface in that first email.
2. Ability
On your download page for your free report or blessing your supporters get in the wake of joining your email show you can show your power and skill in your specialty.
3. Consistency
Your email showcasing needs have a steady message. Fundamentally, each email you send ought to concur with all the others. On the off chance that you examine an idea or thought in one email, don’t change your feeling a couple of messages later.
4. Correspondence
The ‘Law of Reciprocity’ says that when you get something of significant worth, either advanced or physical, without paying for it somehow or another, you by and large feel like you are committed to reimburse that individual here and there.
5. Difference
Show why you’re the perfect master for them. You can delicately give them why the way it ‘has consistently been done’ or the way ‘others do it’ isn’t best for them. This trigger should be utilized cautiously. The most noticeably awful thing you need to do is drive them away by assaulting their convictions, instead of reinstructing them on a superior way.
6. Motivation behind why
You may show why your new or new methodology is best for your crowd. On the off chance that conceivable, you can utilize the judicious contention that it [url=http://www.latestdatabase.com]buy email list[/url] ‘used to work’ yet clarify why it does not work anymore.
7. Expectation
Give them what their life (or business, or wellbeing, whatever your specialty is) can look like in the wake of working with you. This should be possible by demonstrating a customer tribute of somebody who has accomplished the outcome you guarantee.
Amount in OCI, does it get recycled to P&L? thanks
Not until we decide to sell IP. Until sale of IP OCI amount would remain unchanged and all revaluations would go through PL, without any effect on OCI
Speaking of directly attributable costs,
if purchase tax is irrecoverable, it is capitalised. ???
I dont get it. Please help me.
Thank you.
Yes, it will be capitalised as long as it is irrecoverable.
if a property is classified as IP valued under cost model, do we have to depreciate the property?
Investment properties should initially be recognised at cost. However, for subsequent measurement we have 2 options under IAS 40, one is cost cost model and the other being fair value model. Once a method has been chosen it should be applied consistently and to all investment properties.
Now, in case of cost model, investment property would be depreciated normally like any other property, plant and equipment. No year end revaluations would be accounted for, unless it is downward, in which we would record an impairment loss(Dr SPL).
Hello,
The property will be depreciated for the first six-months – $0.5 million. Then
Carrying value = $20 million – $0.5 million = $19.5 It’s OK. Then
The property is revalued to its fair value of $21 million on 1 July 2015 = $21 million – $19.5 million = gain through other comprehensive income of $1.5 million (Rev. srpl) It’s OK too. Then The property is now classified as investment property and no longer depreciated. It’s OK too. Then It is revalued to a fair value of $21.6 million at the reporting date with the gain of $0.6 million going through profit or loss..
Question. What will be happen with $1.5 million (Rev. srpl) for next years. For example if next year fair value will be a $19 million. Then can we use 21.6-19=2.6 million from $1.5 million (Rev. srpl) I mean Rev.surp will be 0 and the remaining amount 2.6-1.5 = 1.1 million go to profit or loss like loss. Is that right ?
No. IP is revalued at FV through PL. If we have something in OCI it doesn’t give us the right to use it for lowering our current year losses in PL, it would mislead our shareholders on FV losses.
OCI is accumulating PPE revaluations while we own the asset, and only transfers to PL when we sell it. Otherwise we would be showing PL gains and losses while actually not having any, because our PPE is still on our balance sheet.
Same for IP if it was previously a PPE. OCI can only be released to RE when sell IP (see paragraph 62 ii on transfer from PPE to IP of IAS 40):
(ii) any remaining part of the increase is recognised in other comprehensive income and increases the revaluation surplus within equity. On subsequent disposal of the investment property, the revaluation surplus included in equity may be transferred to retained earnings. The transfer from revaluation surplus to retained earnings is not made through profit or loss.
When subsesquently we use FV Model why we do not charge depreciation? Reasons?
In a fair value model, you revalue the asset at each year end, so there is no requirement to charge depreciation
Because of the nature of fair value. No one would buy a property from you for $100 if it’s depreciated to $80 let’s say. Instead, a potential buyer would buy it for $80. So instead of depreciation you account FV loss. Basically FV already includes any impairment or depreciation in it’s idea. IFRS 13 topic will give you more ideas on it.
It’s a simple example that doesn’t include any positive fluctuations on price, but I think it gives an idea.
Hi,
With reference to the inventory transfer to IP – so we calculate the difference between cost/nrv (depending on what’s lower) and FV and this difference goes to SPL?
Thanks,
Anna
Yes. Once it’s in Inventories it should be accounted for at the lowest of Cost or NRV. One of them is considered a Carrying Value.
IAS 40 says that we take the difference between CV and FV, and charge the difference to PL.
Paragraph 63 and 64 of IAS 40:
“For a transfer from inventories to investment property that will be carried at fair value, any difference between the fair value of the property at that date and its previous carrying amount shall be recognised in profit or loss.
The treatment of transfers from inventories to investment property that will be carried at fair value is consistent with the treatment of sales of inventories.”
Also the gain on PPE is 1500 and it comes under OCI right. But at the same time shouldnt it comes under Revaluation Reserve as 1500 in SFP ?
I didnt know that you were a liverpool fan <3 .
Hope they gonna raise the PL trophy this season. Btw your lectures were amazing!!!
Hey, you realised there was a mistake – depreciation should be 1000, but then you didnt change it to 1000, you left it as 500, so the answer is wrong.
Hey, there is no mistake as the change in usage took place half way through the year and so we only have 6 months of depreciation, which is 500 and not 1,000 as you state.
Hi sir
19500-21000=1500
is 1500 revaluation surplus?
Hi,
For a change in use from PPE to IP we revalue under IAS 16 before the transfer to IP, therefore the revalution will go through other comprehensive income (revaluation surplus).
Thanks
Hello Chris,
Thank you for the video.
In relation to the 1,500 OCI surplus. Would you also have to add to the SOFP a Revaluation Surplus of 1,500 in equity? Because the journal is:
Dr PPE (SOFP) 1,500
Cr Revaluation Surplus (SOFP and OCI) 1,500
And the journal to record the Gain on the Investment Property is:
Dr PPE (SOFP) 600
Cr Gain on Investment Property (SPLOCI) 600
Is this correct?
It will definitely be added to SFP.
But for revaluation entries are
Dr PPE (SFP) 1,000
Dr Acc depreciation (SFP) 500
Cr Reval surplus (SFP + OCI) 1,500
Thanks for the lecture, the only thing I want to ask is the following.
As you said, if owner occupied property is transfering to IP then it is revalued under IAS 16 and then treated as IP.
So, on 1st of July it was transferred to IP and its cost was 19.5k and NRV (fair value) was 21 mln. Why we dont take the lowest one which is 19.5?
Hi,
Glad you’re finding the lectures useful.
We revalue to fair value, which here is the 21 million, so will use this figure.
Thanks
Is it correct to take the 19.5k instead of the 21 million if we were transferring from IAS 16 to IAS 2?
Great video.
Thanks