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ACCA FR Flashcards

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Learn or revise key terms and concepts for your ACCA Financial Reporting (FR) exam using OpenTuition interactive ACCA FR Flashcards.

There are over 150 ACCA FR flashcards available

Question
Foreign currency (3)
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Answer

No.  Inventory is a non-monetary item and non-monetary items are not re-translated at the reporting date.

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Question
IAS 12 (4)
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Answer

The gain on revaluation of PPE is recognised through other comprehensive income and the associated tax is also recognised through other comprehensive.

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Question
IAS 2 (2)
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Answer

Variable overheads are allocated based on the actual level of production.

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Question
IAS 2 (1)
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Answer

Fixed overheads are allocated on the basis of normal/budgeted capacity.  This is the capacity that is expected to be achieved based on the average over several years.

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Question
Lease incentive
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Answer

A lease incentive is deducted from the initial measurement of the asset.

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Question
Right-of-use asset and depreciation
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Answer

A right-of-use asset is depreciated over the shorter of the lease term and the useful life of the asset.

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Question
Limitations of financial statements
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Answer

The limitations of financial statements are as follows:

  • Historic (prepared to a specific date and published after the reporting date)
  • Standardised format
  • Limited narrative information
  • Based on estimates and judgements
  • Different accounting policies limiting comparison on a company y company basis
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Question
IAS 12 (3)
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Answer

A deferred tax liability it recongised when the carrying value is greater than the tax base.

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Question
IAS 12 (2)
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Answer

The income tax is made up of the following:

  • Current year tax estimate
  • Prior year under/over provision
  • Movement in deferred tax balance
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Question
IAS 12 (1)
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Answer

The tax payable figure is the estimate of tax at the reporting date.

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Question
Agriculture (2)
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Answer

Biological assets are measured at fair value less costs to sell.

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Question
Agriculture (1)
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Answer

A biological asset is a living plant or animal.

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Question
Foreign currency (2)
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Answer

Monetary assets/liabilities are translated at the reporting date using the closing rate.

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Question
Foreign currency (1)
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Answer

Gains/losses on translation of a monetary item are recognised through profit or loss.

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Question
Financial assets (3)
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Answer

A financial asset can be measured at amortised cost when it fulfills BOTH the business model test and cash flow characteristics test.

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Question
Financial liabilities (1)
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Answer

Financial liabilities are initially measured at fair value LESS transaction costs.

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Question
Financial assets (2)
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Answer

Financial assets are initially measured at fair value PLUS transaction costs, unless held at FVTPL where they are recognised immediately through profit or loss.

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Question
Financial assets (1)
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Answer

Financial assets are measured at either:

  • Fair value through profit or loss (FVTPL)
  • Fair value through other comprehensive income (FVTOCI)
  • Amortised cost
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Question
Convertible debt - initial liability measurement
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Answer

The liability is calculated as the present value of the future cash flows, assuming that the debt is a 100% debt instrument, i.e. no conversion option.  The cash flows are the annual coupon payments plus the redemption amount.  These are then discounted at the rate of interest on similar debt without the conversion option.

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Question
How should a company account for a government grant?
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Answer

Recognise in the P&L over the period in which the related expenditure is recognised.

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Question
What is the formula for EPS?
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Answer

Profit for the year attributable to the ordinary sharehokders (i.e. and after NCI)

divided by:
Weighted average number of equity shares

multiplied by 100

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Question
What are the five stages of the revenue recognition model?
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Answer
  • Identify the contract.
  • Identify the performance obligations.
  • Determine the price.
  • Allocate the price to the performance obligations.
  • Recognise revenue as performance obligations are satisfied.
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Question
What is the accounting for negative goodwill?
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Answer

Negative goodwill should be credited to the P&L immediately.

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Question
Should you depreciate PPE and investment properties if held at FV?
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Answer

PPE – yes
Investment properties – no

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Question
Define Functional Currency.
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Answer

Currency of the primary economic environment in which the entity operates.

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Question
What are the 6 qualitative characteristics of financial information?
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Answer
  • Relevance
  • Faithful representation
  • Comparability.
  • Verifiability.
  • Timeliness.
  • Understandability
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Question
What is the correct time-allocation for a 20 mark constructed response question in the FR examination?
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Answer

The correct time-allocation for a 20 mark question in the FR examination is 36 minutes (1.8 minutes per mark) – not a minute more, not a minute less. The formula for quickly calculating time allocation in the FR examination is …. number of marks for the question multiplied by 2 and take off 10%. So, for a 20 mark question …. 20 multiplied by 2 = 40 and 40 – (10% of 40) = 40 – 4 = 36 minutes

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Question
In any question in an FR examination........
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Answer

In any question in an FR examination, the easiest marks to gather are the first 50%.  It is therefore vitally important in the examination to focus on the easier marks first and develop a solid exam technique to ensure that you pass the exam.  Any marks above the pass mark are a bonus!

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Question
Is an increase in the value of closing inventory, when compared with the previous year value
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Answer

Neither! The figure for an increase in the value of closing inventory when compared with the previous year’s figure is not shown in the financing activities section of a Statement of Cash Flows. The figure would be deducted within the operating activities section

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Question
What are the two alternative methods for the preparation of a Statement of Cash Flows?
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Answer

The two alternative methods for the preparation of a Statement of Cash Flows are the “direct method” and the “indirect method”
(the indirect method is the only method examined in the FR exam)

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Question
In a Statement of Cash Flows is the figure for tax paid deducted in arriving at net cash flow from investing activities
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Answer

Neither! The figure for tax paid is not shown in the investing activities section of a Statement of Cash Flows. The figure would be deducted within the operating activities section.

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Question
In a Statement of Cash Flows is a profit on disposal of an asset deducted in arriving at cash.....
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Answer

In a Statement of Cash Flows a profit on disposal of an asset is deducted in arriving at cash generated from operations.  If a loss on disposal of an asset was made then this would be added in arriving at cash generated from operations.

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Question
What are the three main sub-divisions in a Statement of Cash Flows?
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Answer

The three main sub-divisions in a Statement of Cash Flows are:

  • Operating activities
  • Investing activities, and
  • Financing activities
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Question
What is a “cash equivalent” in the context of a Statement of Cash Flows?
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Answer

A cash equivalent in the context of a Statement of Cash Flows is the expression applied to short-term, highly liquid investments that are readily convertible into known amounts of cash and are subject to an insignificant risk of changes in value.  An example being government bonds/guilts.

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Question
What is meant by the term “window dressing”?
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Answer

Window dressing is the entering into (or not entering into) a transaction with the intention of distorting the view shown by the financial statements.

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Question
What is the basis of the calculation for “dividend yield”?
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Answer

Dividend yield is computed as the cent return per dollar invested – in other words, dividend per share / share price.

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Question
When an entity has an “interest cover” multiple of 4.5x, would you conclude that the entity........
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Answer

It is not possible to conclude anything at all from an isolated piece of information!  To be able to analyse the ratio, you will need a comparative figure to see if we are in a stronger position.  Comparative figures are usually those of the prior year but can be against industry averages or a competitor.

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Question
Suggest some reasons why the calculated “days' sales in receivables” has increased from 45 days last year to 52 days this year
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Answer

* A substantial sale just before the year end
* A result of management strategy to increase credit period offered to customers
* Registration for sales tax this year
* Change in cash / credit sales mix
* Break down in credit control department

Other reasons could equally be a contributory cause and you need to analyse the specific scenario in the question.

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Question
How is the quick ratio (acid test) calculated?
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Answer

The quick ratio (acid test) is calculated by (current assets excluding inventory) / current liabilities

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Question
How is the asset turnover multiple calculated?
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Answer

Asset turnover is calculated by dividing revenue by capital employed (equity plus net debt)

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Question
Having calculated an entity's ROCE at 13%, what question does this answer?
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Answer

A calculated ratio in isolation answers NO question. All it can do is raise questions – how, why, when?  How has it changed from the previous year?  Why is it different from the industry average/competition?  When did the change arise?  Could it have been at the start or the end of the year?

When answering an analysis question within the constructed response question in section C always use the word ‘because’ to help you explain the movement.

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Question
What is the full title of the abbreviation “P/E ratio”?
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Answer

The full title of the abbreviation P/E ratio is “Price / Earnings ratio” and is an important performance ratio.  It allows the user of the accounts to make a more like-for-like comparison of the performance of two different entities.

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Question
In a diluted earnings per share question with both options and convertible loan stock
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Answer

The disclosed diluted earnings per share would be 57 cents – the worst position is always shown and anti-dilutive conversions are therefore ignored.

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Question
What is the appropriate accounting treatment for an adjusting event?
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Answer

The appropriate accounting treatment for an adjusting event is to ….. adjust the financial statements as though the event had happened before the reporting date.  So, if a customer went into liquidation after the reporting date but prior to the accounts being authorised for issue, this would be an adjusting event and the receivable balance would be written off through profit or loss.

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Question
What is the correct double entry to reflect a non-adjusting event?
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Answer

A non-adjusting event does not have a double entry as we do not need to adjust the accounts. The appropriate accounting treatment is to disclose the matter in the notes to the financial statements, if it is material.

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Question
What is the definition of a “non-adjusting event”?
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Answer

A non-adjusting event is defined as “any event that occurs after the reporting date but which does not relate to a condition or situation which existed at the reporting date but knowledge of the matter is material for a proper understanding of the financial statements”.  A fire, flood or the fall in the value of an investment after the reporting date is an example of a non-adjusting event.

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Question
What is the definition of an “adjusting event”?
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Answer

An adjusting event is defined as “any event that occurs after the reporting date and which relates to a condition or situation which did exist at the reporting date or fixes with greater certainty an amount or estimate as at the reporting date”.  Common example are where a credit customer goes bankrupt after the reporting date, where there is a sale of inventory at below cost, or the discovery of fraud/error.

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Question
What is the definition of “events after the reporting period”?
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Answer

Events after the reporting period are defined as “those events, both favourable and unfavourable, that occur between the end of the reporting period and the date when the financial statements are authorised for issue.”  IAS 10 [3]

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Question
What is an onerous contract?
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Answer

An onerous contract is one where the costs under the contract exceed the economic benefits of fulfilling the contract.  It essentially gives an entity no chance of an overall inflow of economic benefit and the company must provide for the onerous contract.

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Question
What is a “constructive obligation” of an entity?
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Answer

A constructive obligation of an entity is one which is neither legal nor contractual but, because the entity has acted in a consistent manner in the past (a demonstrable pattern of past practice), the entity has raised in the minds of those affected the valid expectation that it will continue to act in that consistent manner.

An example of this would be where a company states on its website that it will clean up any environmental damage, so that even if there is no legal obligation to do so they have created the constructive obligation and must provide for the clean up costs.

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Question
Details of a contract in its first year are as follows.......
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Answer

Costs to be recognised in this first year of the contract are $1,300,000.

A loss is anticipated overall and must be recognised in full.  The loss is $100,000 ($2,000,000 – $1,250,000 – $850,000)

Revenue of $1,200,000 (60% of $2,000,000) is recognised and to recognise a loss of $100,000, costs must be $1,300,000.

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Question
In the context of financial instruments, what is the definition of a compound instrument?
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Answer

In the context of financial instruments, a compound instrument is a financial instrument that has the characteristics of both equity and a liability.

In the FR examination, convertible debentures/loan stock will be an example of a compound financial instrument.  Split accounting is used to recognise a liability and equity element on initial recognition.

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Question
Define the term “financial asset”.
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Answer

A financial asset is defined as any asset that is:
* cash
* a contractual right to receive cash or another financial asset from another entity (trade receivable)
* a contractual right to exchange financial assets or liabilities with another entity under conditions that are potentially favourable (favourable forward contract)
* an equity instrument of another entity (investment in shares)

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Question
What is the underlying assumption for the preparation of financial statements as per The Conceptual Framework?
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Answer

Going Concern is the underlying assumption.

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Question
An entity enters into a contract to pay rentals for the use of a short-life asset with a fair value of $10,000, 4 months into the accounting period.
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Answer

Short life assets in a lease agreement are NOT depreciated.

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Question
What three characteristics are required to faithfully represent a transaction?
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Answer

The three characteristics are complete, neutral and free from bias.

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Question
What is the definition of a lease?
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Answer

A lease is where there is the right to obtain substantially all of the benefits of using the asset and direct the use of the asset.

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Question
At what value should a lease liability be measured?
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Answer

A lease liability should be measured at the the present value of the minimum lease payments.

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Question
What is the appropriate accounting treatment for an short-life, leased asset?
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Answer

The appropriate accounting treatment  is to expense the total lease payments over the lease period through profit or loss.

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Question
Before it may be classified as an asset held for sale, certain conditions must apply. What are those conditions?
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Answer

* it must be available for immediate sale
* the sale must be highly probable
* management should be committed to the sale
* there is an active programme to find a buyer
* the asset is being actively marketed
* the sale is expected to be completed within 12 months
* it is unlikely that the plan will be changed significantly

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Question
What is the appropriate accounting treatment for an asset which has been classified as an “Asset held for sale”?
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Answer

The appropriate accounting treatment for an asset which has been classified as a “non-current asset held for sale” is to measure it initially at the lower of carrying amount and fair value less costs to sell.  If it is held under the revaluation model then it must be revalued first according to IAS 16 prior to reclassification.

It should be shown separately on the Statement of Financial Position under current assets and should not be depreciated

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Question
In the context of asset impairments, what is the limit below which an asset should not be impaired?
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Answer

In the context of asset impairments, no asset should be impaired to an amount lower than its recoverable amount.

Its recoverable amount is the higher of the value in use and fair value less costs to sell.

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Question
In the context of asset impairments, what is the definition of a cash generating unit
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Answer

In the context of asset impairments, a cash generating unit is defined as:
“the smallest group of identifiable assets which generates cash inflows independently of other assets or groups of assets”

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Question
In the context of asset impairments, of what is “CGU” the abbreviation?
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Answer

In the context of asset impairments, “CGU” the abbreviation for a “Cash Generating Unit”.

A CGU is the the smallest identifiable group of assets that generate cash inflows that are largely independent of the cash inflows from other assets or groups of assets.  IAS 36 [6]

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Question
In the context of asset impairments, what is the definition of “recoverable amount”
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Answer

In the context of asset impairments, “recoverable amount” is the higher of “value in use” and “fair value less costs to sell”

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Question
When considering whether an asset needs to be impaired, the carrying value should be compared with what other value?
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Answer

When considering whether an asset needs to be impaired, the carrying value should be compared with the recoverable amount of that asset, which is the higher of the value in use and fair value less costs to sell.

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Question
What is the definition of “development expenditure”?
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Answer

Development expenditure is defined as:-
the application of research findings or other knowledge to a plan or design for the production of new or substantially improved materials, devices, products, processes, systems or services before the start of commercial production or use.

 

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Question
In the context of research and development expenditure, what is the appropriate treatment of “applied research”
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Answer

In the context of research and development expenditure, the appropriate treatment of “applied research” as distinct from “pure research” is to expense it in the Statement of Income. “Pure research” is treated in exactly the same way – expense in the year in which it is incurred.

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Question
In the context of goodwill, what is the appropriate treatment for goodwill
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Answer

In the context of goodwill, the appropriate treatment for goodwill which has been internally generated is to ignore it completely

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Question
In the context of intangible assets, what is the difference between an asset with an “infinite life”
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Answer

In the context of intangible assets, an asset with an infinite life is an asset which is expected to “live” forever whereas an asset with an indefinite life is one where it is accepted that the asset will be used up over a period of time, but we are unable to determine a reasonable estimate of just how long that life may be

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Question
What are the two methods of measuring the value of an intangible asset
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Answer

The two methods of measuring the value of an intangible asset are:

  • the cost model, and
  • the revaluation model
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Question
Where an investment property is held under the fair value model, what is the appropriate treatment for this asset?
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Answer

Where an investment property is held under the fair value model, the appropriate treatment for this asset is to:-
revalue the asset at the end of every year
show any gain or loss within the Statement of Income
do not charge depreciation on the asset

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Question
What are the two alternative accounting treatments for investment properties?
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Answer

The two alternative accounting treatments for investment properties are:

  • the cost model, and
  • the fair value model
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Question
What is the definition of “Investment Property”?
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Answer

Investment property is defined as:
land or a building held to earn rentals or for capital appreciation (or both), rather than for use or sale in the ordinary course of the entity’s business

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Question
In the context of borrowing costs, what are the situations when borrowing costs should cease to be capitalised?
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Answer

In the context of borrowing costs, the situations when borrowing costs should cease to be capitalised are:-
when the qualifying asset is substantially complete
when work on the qualifying asset is halted during a prolonged period of inactivity

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Question
What is the appropriate treatment of borrowing costs incurred on a qualifying loan?
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Answer

The appropriate treatment of borrowing costs incurred on a qualifying loan is to capitalise the borrowing costs into the carrying value of the asset

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Question
There are two alternative methods of accounting for the receipt of a government grant received in respect of an asset.
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Answer

The two alternative methods of accounting for the receipt of a government grant received in respect of an asset are:
* deduct the grant from the cost of the asset
* credit a deferred income account

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Question
What is the appropriate accounting treatment when subsequent expenditure on property, plant
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Answer

If the subsequent expenditure improves the earning capacity of the asset, the expenditure should be capitalised. If, however, the subsequent expenditure merely extends the useful life of the asset, the expenditure should be written off in the year in which the expenditure is incurred.

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Question
What is the appropriate accounting treatment when an entity revises its assessment of the remaining useful life of an asset?
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Answer

The appropriate accounting treatment when an entity revises its assessment of the remaining useful life of an asset is to depreciate the asset over its revised estimated useful life. This is an example of a change in accounting estimate and no adjustment is made to previously reported figures when an estimate is changed.

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What is the appropriate treatment in the current year's Financial Statements when an entity discovers a fundamental error which
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Answer

The appropriate treatment in the current year’s Financial Statements when an entity discovers a fundamental error which, if detected last year, would have caused the previous year’s reported figures to be different is to restate as a prior year adjustment the figures previously reported

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Question
What is the appropriate treatment in the current year's Financial Statements when an entity changes an accounting policy?
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Answer

The appropriate treatment in the current year’s Financial Statements when an entity changes an accounting policy is to restate the figures brought forward from previous years and apply the new policy prospectively

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Question
What is the definition of a Contingent Liability?
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Answer

A Contingent Liability is a possible obligation that arises from some past event and the existence of which will be confirmed by the occurrence or non-occurrence of some substantially uncertain future event not wholly within the control of the entity or it is an item which should be provided for, but is not capable of reliable measurement

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Question
What is the Framework definition of Equity?
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Answer

The Framework definition of Equity is: the residual amount after deducting all liabilities of the entity from all of the entity’s assets

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Question
What is the definition of a Provision?
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Answer

A provision is a probable obligation of uncertain timing or amount

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Question
What is the Framework definition of a Liability?
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Answer

The Framework definition of a liability is:-

A present obligation of the entity to transfer an economic resource as a result of past events.

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Question
What is the Framework definition of an Asset?
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Answer

The Framework definition of an asset is:-

A present economic resource controlled by the entity as a result of past events.

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Question
What is the full title for which IASB is the abbreviation?
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Answer

The full title for which IASB is the abbreviation is “International Accounting Standards Board”

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Question
When preparing the Consolidated Statement of Profit or Loss, you are told that the Associate Entity sold goods
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Answer

When preparing the Consolidated Statement of Profit or Loss, you are told that the associate entity sold goods to the parent during the year of $60,000 (at cost to the parent). The parent had none of these goods in inventory as at the year end.

No PURP adjustment is required as the goods have all been sold and no adjustment is necessary for the sales amount because the associate is NOT a group entity and they are therefore not intra-group sales.

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Question
What is the basis for the calculation of Consolidated Retained Earnings for the Consolidated Statement
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Answer

The basis for the calculation of Consolidated Retained Earnings for the Consolidated Statement of Financial Position is:
* the parent entity’s own retained earnings (100%), plus
* the parent’s share of the subsidiary’s post-acquisition retained earnings, less
* any impairment of goodwill (full goodwill method)

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Question
What is the basis of the calculation of the non-controlling interest investment for the Consolidated Statement....
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Answer

The basis of the calculation of the non-controlling interest investment for the Consolidated Statement of Financial Position is:-
* NCI value at date of acquisition, plus
* NCI share of subsidiary’s post acquisition movement in net assets, less
* NCI share of any impairment of goodwill

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Question
When preparing a Consolidated Statement of Profit or Loss
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Answer

When preparing a Consolidated Statement of Profit or Loss, we are told that during the year the subsidiary sold goods to the parent with a selling value of $27,000. The goods had cost the subsidiary $27,000.

The adjustment necessary is to deduct $27,000 from both the combined revenue and the combined cost of sales.

There is no PURP as the goods were sold for the same amount as they cost, hence zero profit!

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Question
The parent has a 75% holding in a subsidiary
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Answer

The parent has a 75% holding in a subsidiary. Before the year end, the subsidiary directors declared a dividend of $6,000.

The parent’s share of the dividend (75% of $6,000) $4,500 dividend should be deducted from the calculation of consolidated retained earnings ( Working 5 )?

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Question
3 months into the accounting year, the parent sold an item of plant and machinery
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Answer

The value of the provision for unrealised profit is $32,500 ($40,000 – $7,500 ($40,000/ 4 * 9/12))

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Question
What could be the situations where the cost of acquisition plus the value of the non-controlling
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Answer

The situations that give rise to a bargain purchase include:
* where the fair values attributed by the acquirer to the subsidiary net assets are greater than the carrying value of those assets in the subsidiary’s records
* where the acquiree’s owners were in a “forced sale” situation
* where the acquiree’s owners are simply looking to sell their entity because, for example, of approaching retirement

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Question
In what situation is the Statement of Financial Position of the subsidiary time-apportioned
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Answer

The subsidiary’s assets and liabilities on the Statement of Financial Position are NEVER time-apportioned.  At the reporting date, the parent has control and therefore consolidated 100% of the assets and liabilities.

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Question
When a subsidiary has sold goods to the parent and the unrealised profit is calculated as
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Answer

When a subsidiary has sold goods to the parent and the unrealised profit is calculated as $2,760, the adjustment for $2,760 is deducted from the Retained Earnings of the subsidiary.

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Question
When a parent sells $130,000 goods to a subsidiary achieving margin of 30% and the subsidiary
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Answer

When a parent sells $130,000 goods to a subsidiary achieving margin of 30% and the subsidiary has a quarter of these goods in inventory at the year end, the provision for unrealised profit is $9,750 (¼ * 30/100 * $130,000)

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Question
When a parent sells $130,000 goods to a subsidiary at a mark up of 30% and the subsidiary has none of these goods in inventory
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Answer

When a parent sells $130,000 goods to a subsidiary at a mark up of 30% and the subsidiary has none of these goods in inventory at the year end, no provision for unrealised profit is required

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Question
There are three ways in which the examiner can give you information to calculate the value of the non-controlling interest investment
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Answer

The three ways are:

  • telling you the fair value of the investment
  • telling you the fair value of the goodwill attributable to the non-controlling interest (add NCI share of S’s net assets)
  • telling you the fair value of the subsidiary’s shares immediately before acquisition (multiply by the number of NCI shares)
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Question
When the non-controlling interest is valued on a proportional basis, how is the share of any impairment in the value of goodwill allocated
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Answer

When the non-controlling interest is valued on a proportional basis, any impairment of goodwill is allocated entirely to the parent entity, none is allocated to the NCI.

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Question
What are the two different ways in which the investment of the non-controlling interest may be measured
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Answer

The investment of the investment of the non-controlling interest may be measured on a proportional basis (share of net assets) or on a full, fair value basis.

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What is a non-controlling interest?
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Answer

A non-controlling interest is the interest of the owners of the subsidiary shares not owned by the parent entity

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Question
What is the definition of “control of an investee”?
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Answer

Control of an investee is the power to direct the operating and investing activities of the entity and is defined as “an investor controls an investee when the investor is exposed, or has rights, to variable returns from its involvement with the investee and has the ability to affect those returns through its power over the investee”  IFRS 10 [6]

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Question
When is an investee classed as an associate?
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Answer

An investee is classed as an associate when the investor holds a significant influence in the investee.  Significant influence is the power to participate in the financial and operating policy decision of the investee.  Ownership of 20% or more of the voting power of the investee signifies significant influence.

Influence is usually evidenced by representation on the board of directors.

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Question
When must an entity prepare consolidated financial statements?
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Answer

An entity must prepare consolidated financial statements when the entity has had control over another entity at any time within the accounting period

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Question
What is the extent of an investor's influence when the investor holds > 20% but
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Answer

The extent of an investor’s influence when the investor holds > 20% but < 50% of the voting power of another company is normally “significant” and the investor equity accounts for the investment.

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Question
Equity accounting is the method normally applied in the consolidated financial statements by an investor (with subsidiaries) which holds > 20% and < 50% in another company
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Answer

Yes, equity accounting IS the usual manner of accounting for an investment in an associate

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Question
Equity accounting is the method always applied in the consolidated financial statements by an investor (with subsidiaries) which holds > 20% and < 50% in another company
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Answer

No, not true. If an investor has > 20% and < 50% of another company's voting power, it would normally expect to treat the investment as an associate under the principles of equity accounting. However, this treatment is dependent upon the disposition of the remaining shares / voting power

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Question
Equity accounting is the method applied in the consolidated financial statements by an investor with no subsidiaries which holds > 20% and < 50% of the voting power in another company
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Answer

No, not true. If an investor has no subsidiaries, there is no requirement to produce / present consolidated financial statements

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Question
The nci in a consolidated statement of financial position question is calculated as “nci value
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Answer

Yes, it is true

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Question
When dealing with an associate company, goodwill on acquisition is calculated in the same way as goodwill on acquisition of a subsidiary
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Answer

No, we DO NOT calculate “goodwill” on the acquisition of an associate. Any amount paid by the investor over the investor’s share of the associate’s fair valued net assets at date of acquisition is called “premium on acquisition” not goodwill

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Question
When dealing with a 75% subsidiary, we include within the consolidated assets and liabilities JUST OUR SHARE of the subsidiary's assets and liabilities
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Answer

No, we consolidate the FULL 100% amount of the subsidiary’s assets and liabilities ie the value which is under our control!

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Question
When dealing with a consolidated statement of income question, it is necessary to eliminate the value
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Answer

No, the adjustment is to reduce revenue and cost of sales by the transfer value of the intra-group traded goods

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Question
In a mid-year acquisition, we consolidate the newly-acquired subsidiary's results
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Answer

No, we consolidate the newly-acquired subsidiary’s results for the period AFTER the acquisition

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Question
In a consolidated statement of income question, any pup which is calculated on the closing inventory needs to be adjusted within consolidated cost of sales.
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Answer

Yes, the adjustment is to add the pup to consolidated cost of sales

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Question
In a consolidated statement of income question, any pup which is calculated on the closing
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Answer

No, the adjustment is to ADD the pup to consolidated cost of sales

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Question
In a consolidated statement of income question, any pup which is calculated on the closing inventory
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Answer

No, the adjustment is to ADD the pup to consolidated cost of sales

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Question
In a consolidated statement of income question, any pup which is calculated
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Answer

No, the adjustment is to ADD the pup to consolidated cost of sales

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Question
When there are goods in transit at the year end between the parent and the subsidiary
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Answer

No, not true. The selling company will have recognised a profit when they recorded the sale as they despatched the goods to the other group company. And it’s that profit which needs to be eliminated from the retained earnings of the selling company

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Question
Where there is cash in transit at the year end from the subsidiary to the parent, the consolidation
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Answer

No, the adjustment is to debit the cash account in the parent and to credit the “receivable from the subsidiary” included within the parent’s receivables

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Question
In an exam question, where the current accounts in the records of the parent and the subsidiary
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Answer

No, the adjustment necessary is to reconcile the two balances and then cancel the receivable against the payable

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Question
Where the closing inventory of the intra-group traded goods is 240,000, the value
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Answer

No, margin is a percentage based on selling price, so the profit element is 20% x 240,000 = 48,000

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Question
Where the closing inventory of the intra-group traded goods is 240,000
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Answer

Yes, margin is a percentage based on selling price, so the profit element is 20% x 240,000 = 48,000

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Question
Where the closing inventory of the intra-group traded goods is 240,000
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Answer

No! Mark-up is a percentage based on cost, so the profit element is 20/120 x 240,000 = 40,000

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Question
Where the closing inventory of the intra-group traded goods is zero, the value of
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Answer

No! It is calculated based on the value of the CLOSING INVENTORY of those intra-group traded goods and, since that is zero, the pup is zero

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Question
Where the closing inventory of the intra-group traded goods is zero
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Answer

No! It is calculated based on the value of the CLOSING INVENTORY of those intra-group traded goods and, since that is zero, the pup is zero

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Question
The PUP on inventory is calculated based on the value of the intra-group traded goods during the year
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Answer

No! It is calculated based on the value of the CLOSING INVENTORY of those intra-group traded goods

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Question
When an item of TNCA is transferred at a profit within a group, and is still in the possession
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Answer

The amount to eliminate is the NET amount of the unrealised profit – ie as reduced by the depreciation which has been charged on the unrealised profit recognised on transfer

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Question
When an item of TNCA is transferred at a profit within a group
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Answer

When an item of TNCA is transferred at a profit within a group, and is still in the possession of a group company as at the year end, the adjustment necessary to remove the unrealised profit is to credit the TNCA and debit the retained earnings of the company WHICH RECOGNISED THE PROFIT

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Question
What is the difference between “mark-up” and “margin” ?
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Answer
  • “margin” is used where the profit is expressed as a percentage based on the selling / transfer price
  • “mark-up” is used where the profit is expressed as a percentage based on the cost price of the item transferred
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Question
When calculating the figure for Consolidated Retained Earnings, the basis for the calculation
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Answer

YES! It IS true. This is the “working 3”

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Question
The Share Premium Account is (at least in F7!) ALWAYS a pre-acquisition reserve
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Answer

Yes, in FR (and substantially always in SBR!) the Share Premium Account is a reserve which existed at the date of acquisition

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Question
When an exam question says that “the directors value the nci investment on a proportional basis” the examiner is
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Answer

When an exam question says that “the directors value the nci investment on a proportional basis” the examiner is effectively saying that the nci is valued on the basis of their percentage applied to the fair value of the subsidiary’s net assets as at the date of acquisition

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Question
Where the nci is valued on a proportional basis, the amount of goodwill impairment attributable to the nci is
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Answer

Yes, there is NO goodwill attributable to the nci where they are valued on a proportional basis so there is no impairment attributable to them

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Question
What is the accepted abbreviation for “nci”
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Answer

“nci” stands for non-controlling interest”

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Question
What is a “bargain purchase”?
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Answer

A bargain purchase is the expression used when the fair value of a subsidiary’s net assets at date of acquisition exceed the “value” attributable to that subsidiary taking into account the fair value of the purchase consideration and the value attributable to the nci

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Question
Negative goodwill appears on the consolidated statement of financial position as a negative at the top of the Asset Section
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Answer

No, it is not true. Negative goodwill should, having been reassessed at the first year end after acquisition, be credited to Retained Earnings at the end of the year of acquisition

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Question
Negative goodwill appears on the consolidated statement of financial position as a Long Term Liability
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Answer

No, it is not true. Negative goodwill should, having been reassessed at the first year end after acquisition, be credited to Retained Earnings at the end of the year of acquisition

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Question
When calculating Goodwill in working 2, I know I have made a mistake
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Answer

No, it is not necessarily true. Where the fair value of the subsidiary’s net assets at the date of acquisition exceeds the “value” of the subsidiary, then negative goodwill will be the result

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Question
When a company holds 35% of another company's shares and voting rights and the remaining 65% are spread over
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Answer

No, it is not ALWAYS true. Where the disposition of the remaining shares is wide-spread, the holding of 35% COULD represent effective control in which case it could fall to be consolidated as a subsidiary as explained in IFRS 10

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Question
When a company holds 35% of another company's shares and voting rights, then the investee
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Answer

No, it is not ALWAYS true. If the other 65% are held by another party, the 35% holder has no influence and would therefore treat the investment as though it were merely an investment and account for the dividend stream from that investment

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Question
When preparing the consolidated statement of financial position and a subsidiary has been
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Answer

No, it is not true. The subsidiary’s statement of financial position is “as at a moment in time” and, by definition, this must be post acquisition

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Question
If a foreign government imposes severe restrictions on an overseas subsidiary, this represents a loss
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Answer

Yes, the statement is true. A subsidiary is “a company which is under the control of another” and, if control has now been lost to the foreign government, then it is no longer a subsidiary

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Question
If a foreign government takes possession of the assets of an overseas subsidiary, this represents a loss of control
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Answer

Yes, the statement is true. A subsidiary is “a company which is under the control of another” and, if control has now been lost to the foreign government, then it is no longer a subsidiary

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Question
If a lender has, within the loan agreement, the right to appoint
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Answer

Yes, the statement is true. A subsidiary is “a company which is under the control of another” and, if control has now been lost to a lender, then it is no longer a subsidiary

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Question
If a liquidator has been appointed to the subsidiary,
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Answer

Yes, the statement is true. A subsidiary is “a company which is under the control of another” and, if control has now been lost to a liquidator, then it is no longer a subsidiary

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Question
Where an investor holds shares in another company representing greater than 50% of the voting rights in a general meeting of that other company, the investor must always incorporate the results of the investee company in a set of group financial statements.
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Answer

No, it’s NOT true. The holding of greater than 50% of the voting rights does not automatically represent control.

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Question
If an investor is exposed to, or has the rights to, variable returns
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Answer

Yes, under IFRS 10, where the investor is so exposed to or has such rights, this indicates control and therefore the requirement to incorporate the investee’s results as a subsidiary

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Question
A subsidiary which is classed as an asset held for sale is excluded from the group accounts prepared by the parent.
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Answer

Yes, the statement is true. In fact, it’s the ONLY reason identified by IFRS for the exclusion of a subsidiary from the group financial statements

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Question
A discontinued operation (not having been classed as an asset held for sale)
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Answer

No, it is not true. A discontinued operation (not having been classed as an asset held for sale) is one which HAS BEEN disposed of

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Question
Non-current assets held-for-sale (1)
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Answer

No, it is not true. Not only must management be committed to the sale but an active programme to locate a buyer must have been started.

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Question
Non-current asset held for sale (2)
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Answer

The statement is not true. To be classed as “held for sale” it should be available for immediate sale

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Question
Change an accounting policy (2)
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Answer
  • If required by an IFRS; or
  • Results in the financial statements providing reliable and more relevant information

IAS 8 [14]

Information is usually reliable and more relevant when there is a change in recognition, presentation or measurement.

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Change in accounting policy (3)
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Answer

The statement is NOT true. In the context of a change in accounting policy, it is necessary to restate the opening figures and last year’s financial statements. The effect of the change is that the financial statements should reflect the position as if the new policy had always been in operation.

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Change in accounting policy (1)
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Answer

The statement is TRUE.  In the context of a change in accounting policy, it is necessary to restate the opening figures and last year’s financial statements.

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Change in accounting estimate (2)
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Answer

The statement is not true.  In the context of a change in accounting estimate, it is not necessary to restate the opening figures or last year’s financial statements. The change in estimate applies only prospectively and not retrospectively.  A change in accounting policy or prior year error requires the opening balances to be restated.

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Change in accounting estimate (1)
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Answer

The statement is TRUE.  A change in accounting estimate is applied prospectively, i.e. to the current period and future periods.  It is NOT necessary to restate the opening figures nor last year’s financial statements

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Question
Financial statements - IAS 1
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Answer
  • Statement of Financial Position
  • Statement of Profit or Loss and Other Comprehensive Income
  • Statement of Cash Flows
  • Statement of Changes in Equity
  • Notes to the Financial Statements
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Question
What are the perceived disadvantages of the standardisation of accounting practices?
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Answer

Perceived disadvantages of standardising accounting practices include:
* pressure groups may succeed in asking for amendments thus reducing comparability
* inflexibility leading to possible inappropriate accounting treatment
* introduction of rules removes the concepts of skill and judgement

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What are the perceived advantages of the standardisation of accounting practices?
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Answer

Standardised accounting practices:
* provide a focal point for debate
* require disclosure of policies adopted
* encourage global discussion
* are flexible
* enable meaningful comparison
* reduce the penumbral areas of divergent possibilities

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Qualitative characteristics - enhancing
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Answer

The four enhancing qualitative characteristics are:

  • Comparability
  • Verifiability
  • Timeliness
  • Understandability
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Qualitative characteristics - fundamental
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Answer

The fundamental qualitative characteristics are relevance and faithful representation.

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Question
According to IAS 38 – Intangible assets – how should research be treated in the financial statements?
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Answer

Research costs should be expensed in the Income Statement.

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Question
How is a contingent asset treated in the Financial Statements if the likelihood of the asset being confirmed is regarded as probable?
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Answer

If it is probable, then the asset should not be recognised in the Financial Statements, but it should be disclosed by way of note.

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What is a contingent asset?
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Answer

A contingent asset is a possible asset that may appear due to past events.

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Do we depreciate the Land and Buildings category?
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Answer

Buildings will be depreciated because they have a limited useful life.
Land will not normally be depreciated because it has an unlimited life.

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Inventory is valued at the lower of
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Answer

Inventory is valued at the lower of cost and net realisable value (NRV).

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