Group SPL - Example (MYA) - ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)

20 Comments

1. C
   clodzy12·2mo ago

   sir i am very confused as to why we are adding the dividend from the subsidiary company ( maul) since it was already accounted for in the individual profit and loss statement of the parent company (vader) won't it be double counting it if we were to add it again in the consolidated statement of profit and loss?
2. M
   marachyz·9mo ago

   thank you so much, I passed first time because of your lectures
3. M
   Mohammed Omer·1y ago

   why there is not new tax amount , after charging impairment to Subsidiary
4. L
   lloyd·1y ago

   hahahah this genius lecture and 6 time winning of Liverpool kkkk
5. L
   lloyd·1y ago

   kkkk u and Liverpool as 6 times EUFA winners
6. R
   Rajesh·2y ago

   The Profit for the year for the sub i think is 46 and not 36. Could someone confirm this ? Thanks
7. G
   Gloria·2y ago

   It is S's PFY (6 months) minus impairment = (6/12 x 112) – 20 = 36
8. J
   Jock·4y ago

   why dont we take 80% of impairment?
9. F
   Former user·4y ago

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10. F
    Former user·4y ago

    [Content removed at user request]
11. F
    Former user·4y ago

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12. M
    Mohamed·3y ago

    I think it is the Same Logic exactly as with Revaluation Gain. It happens at a point in time
13. D
    David·2y ago

    For a start the impairment is on Maul's goodwill, so that's why it would go in their column, but aside from that you ARE apportioning 80% of it to the parent anyway when you split out the profit allocation at the end. That's what the NCI calculation is for.
14. D
    diamond783·5y ago

    Happy with that, well explained. Thank you :)
15. M
    m900·5y ago

    i hate liverpool fc hahahahaha sorry sir
16. P
    peesto·5y ago

    Well Explained
17. S
    Sarvin·6y ago

    Well explained. Thank you Sir
18. T
    Tasha·6y ago

    Don't we pro rate the dividend income from subsidiary ? Since we have acquired the sub mid way through the year. Doesn't that make us entitle to only 6m dividends which then are deducted in adjusting the investment income ?
19. I
    incepaul·5y ago

    No - who ever owns the share(s) on the date they go ex-dividend is entitled to the whole amount of dividend per share that has been declared and approved.
20. M
    Mahgalathen·5y ago

    Dividend income occurs at a point in time not over time like revaluation gain, as such it is purely based on shareholding% in the company. Date of acquisition for dividend income is quite irrelevant for consol.