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Financial instruments – Example (FVTPL and FVTOCI) – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)

VIVA

Reader Interactions

Comments

  1. Kristiina says

    June 5, 2024 at 8:44 am

    Part of the video is missing. Last part of question 2 and the total of question 3. Please fix the video.

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    • dallara says

      July 28, 2024 at 12:01 pm

      There is another video focusing on the answer of point n. 3
      https://opentuition.com/acca/fr/financial-instruments-example-amortised-cost-acca-financial-reporting-fr/

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  2. stylesp says

    June 6, 2021 at 3:53 pm

    I don’t know if I am missing something (apologies in advance), but the video cuts out at 14:54…where’s the rest of it? I can see when playing that it should be 20:42 but the above doesn’t show the full video.

    Many thanks,
    Phil

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    • Neha says

      February 26, 2022 at 8:47 am

      Yea, same.

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      • Brendalesele says

        April 6, 2022 at 8:29 pm

        May we get the missing piece pleae

  3. destiny09 says

    February 22, 2021 at 8:47 pm

    Hi,

    I have small confusion about transaction cost, when we add transaction cost to cost and when we treat as expense?

    Thank you

    Regards

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    • P2-D2 says

      February 22, 2021 at 9:03 pm

      Hi,

      They will be treated as an expense when we acquire a financial asset that is classified at fair value through profit or loss. Any other classification of a financial asset (FVTOCI or amortised cost), the transaction costs will be added to the fair value at the acquisition date.

      Thanks

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  4. Meloman says

    July 22, 2020 at 7:37 am

    Hi, I have a question and would be happy to get an answer to it

    My BPP book says that:

    Under IFRS 9 all financial assets should be initially measured at cost = fair value plus transaction costs.

    In this lecture we met that criteria for assets at FVTOCI, we recognised them as 500000 + 40000 = 540000

    but then why we expensed the transaction cost at FVTPL and recognised it as 500000

    if the standard says that ALL financial assets should be initially measured at cost = fair value plus transaction costs??

    thanks and regards

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    • lianghow says

      August 5, 2020 at 1:08 pm

      Under IFRS 9 all financial instruments are initially measured at fair value plus or minus, in the case of a financial asset or financial liability not at fair value through profit or loss, transaction costs. This requirement is consistent with IAS 39.

      Source: https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/ru/Documents/audit/ifrs-9-financial-instruments-en.pdf

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  5. karang says

    June 4, 2020 at 3:20 am

    Hi
    Why do we initial measurement of financial asset is done at fair value why is it not done at purchase cost + transaction cost.

    It means initially on day of purchase if fair value is other than purchase cost shall we have to recognize the financial asset at fair value

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    • P2-D2 says

      June 4, 2020 at 10:36 am

      Hi,

      The purchase cost is the fair value.

      Thanks

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  6. fmfernandes0 says

    May 23, 2020 at 12:22 pm

    Hi, is the derecognition of the investment accounted for as below?

    DR bank $650,000
    CR investments $620,000
    CR SPL $30,000

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    • mariakurina says

      July 1, 2020 at 2:41 pm

      Yes, plus:
      Dr Revaluation reserve $80,000
      Cr Retained earnings $80,000

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      • lucasf says

        October 21, 2020 at 7:11 pm

        That’s how I’ve done it too

  7. haddock says

    May 18, 2020 at 10:49 pm

    Sir, you say that the downward revaluation is recorded as an expense in the SPLOCI, am I correct that it will be treated as an impairment?

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  8. sergeaboli says

    January 8, 2020 at 2:40 pm

    Hi. Can anyone tell me why on the first example the cost was debited by the SPL and in the second example the cost was included in the investment?
    Thank you

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    • moryrahbari says

      January 15, 2020 at 9:11 am

      Hi, I believe in the first one it was a cost (or loss) due to decreasing of the investment value, But in the second one it was a cost that we made to purchase the investment

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    • harshin says

      January 16, 2020 at 6:54 am

      The first question is about default measurement that is FVTPL.if it is classified as FVTPL the transaction cost will treated as expense

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  9. daous says

    October 5, 2019 at 8:09 pm

    hi,

    sir if the company bought the same share through out the whole year(every quarter as part of to hostile takeover) , then the fair value should be measure separate or average out the cost by adding up all the share value through out the transaction and divide by to quantity of the share?

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  10. ankitdandriyal says

    August 28, 2019 at 5:34 pm

    Hi,

    can you please tell me what will be the treatment of FVTOCI if there is a downward revaluation of $ 1,000?
    this is the 1st time revaluation and we don’t investment reserve balance
    please write journal entries also

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    • mariakurina says

      July 1, 2020 at 2:36 pm

      it would be an impairment I guess.
      Dr Impairment loss
      Cr Investment

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  11. oluwaferanmi3 says

    August 12, 2019 at 3:08 pm

    I have a question. I thought that the initial measurement for Financial Asset is to recognize at fairvalue including transaction cost, except where it is designated to profit or loss. Can you explain why we have measured the first question directly through profit or loss at the initial measurement?

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    • oluwaferanmi3 says

      August 12, 2019 at 8:31 pm

      I think I got it. 🙂

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  12. Arinze says

    January 18, 2019 at 7:11 pm

    Hi,

    Thank you for this lecture. Please see some questions below:

    1. In question 2, is there a reason why we did not ‘account’ for the different currencies in this question? (the transaction cost and fair value are shown in GBP, while the initial value of the shares is USD).

    2. In question 2, what is the accounting treatment for the subsequent sale of the shares ($650,000)?

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    • souvik says

      March 18, 2019 at 6:41 am

      1. Its just a printing mistake & you’ll find similar mistakes in kaplan textbook also.

      2. The sale part is quite easy ,you can journalize it yourself.

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  13. usama44 says

    November 15, 2018 at 2:37 pm

    Sir I got the concept but In part b It said 500000 including transaction cost of 40000 so its 500000 which includes the transaction costs so we have to debit 500000 instead of 540000?

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    • P2-D2 says

      December 31, 2018 at 2:45 pm

      Hi,

      It says incurring and not including so the costs are an additional amount on top of the $500,000.

      Thanks

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  14. hijo says

    October 15, 2018 at 5:10 am

    Sir I couldn’t find lecture complete could u explain derecognition of investment…

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  15. matthewrjames says

    September 20, 2018 at 1:23 pm

    Should there be a part for derecognition too? You mentioned that in the lecture but didn’t cover it or how to show it. There are quite a few things missing throughout these lectures that I’ve noticed so far and worried as we won’t know it for the exam.

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  16. sxhawty says

    August 6, 2018 at 9:18 am

    “If you want the journal entries.. you must be crazy” hahahahahahah thank you for making your lectures not boring. I love watching your lectures, I actually pay attention.

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    • P2-D2 says

      August 6, 2018 at 3:27 pm

      Hi,

      Glad you’re enjoying the lectures, and if you do ever want the journals then just ask on the forum. Hope you enjoy the rest of the lectures just as much as the ones so far.

      Thanks

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      • afa716 says

        October 25, 2018 at 4:17 pm

        Hi, where is the rest of this question? The part where the shares are subsequently sold for $650,000…

  17. mohsin17222 says

    July 28, 2018 at 10:04 am

    Sir,

    When Financial assets have been sold then why profit did not report in SOPL? Why we transfered it into RETAINED EARNINGS / SOCE?

    Thanks !

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    • P2-D2 says

      July 28, 2018 at 11:35 am

      Hi,

      If we sell an financial asset that has been held at FVTOCI then there are two aspects we need to deal with.

      Firstly there is the profit on disposal calculated as the difference between the proceeds and the value of the financial asset held on the SFP, which is recognised through profit or loss.

      Secondly there are stored up gains in other components of equity that need to be transferred to retained earnings, as these gains have now been realised.

      Hope this helps.

      Thanks

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  18. Saif says

    June 18, 2018 at 5:25 pm

    Thanks a lot sir for an Amazing set of lectures.

    I have got a small doubt…. Apologize if it is silly, but those doubts turning my head round.

    I have understood how to calculate (measure) but have still got no clarity where to post it.

    Could you please correct me?

    Ex 1 part B
    On the reporting date of the financial position the investment would value at 620000

    As u did in the ppe lectures can you please mention it here …
    I mean in this form

    Spl.
    1)
    2)

    SFP
    1)
    2)

    OCI
    1)
    2)

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    • Saif says

      June 18, 2018 at 5:26 pm

      Thanks.

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    • P2-D2 says

      July 2, 2018 at 8:58 pm

      Hi,

      At the reporting date we would have the following:

      SFP

      Financial asset (@FV) $620,000

      SPLOCI

      Gain on FVTOCI (620,000 – 540,000) $80,000

      Hope that helps.

      Thanks

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      • abhishek97 says

        May 15, 2019 at 7:17 am

        QUESTION

        Background
        A Co is a subsidiary of B Co, which proposes to demerge an identified business division to B Co.

        Under the transaction, the identified business division will be transferred from A Co to B Co through a scheme of demerger approved by the NCLT. As a consideration for demerger, B Co to issue shares to the shareholders of A Co (except B Co).

        One of the ingredients as assets of the business being demerged is portfolio investments of the business. The portfolio investment is treated as Fair Value Through Other Comprehensive Income (FVTOCI) in accordance with IndAS 109.

        Accordingly, all fair value gains/loss in relation to the investment are recorded in statement of profit and loss account under the head “Other Comprehensive Income (OCI) Items that will not be reclassified to Profit or Loss”.

        Illustratively, following is the position in the balance sheet of March 31, 2019 (in relation to the portfolio investment):
        • Original acquisition cost: INR 1000
        • Fair value gain (accumulated in OCI): Rs 4000
        • Book value of investment: Rs 5000

        Query
        1. In the above scenario what should be the accounting entry A Co should pass in its books for the demerger as a Demerged Company?

        2. Through the demerger entries can A Co reverse the fair value gain impact of previous years (which increased the value of the investment) by debiting the head under the statement of profit and loss account “Other Comprehensive Income (OCI) Items that will not be reclassified to Profit or Loss”?

        Please answer this question i need its solution urgently ……..

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