- August 15, 2021 at 10:22 pm #631688FaridaGunayMember
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Yling Co entered into a contract which is expected to last 24 months on 1 January 20X4.
The. The fixed price which has been agreed for the contract is $5 million. At 30 September
20X4 the costs incurred on the contract were $1.6 million and the estimated remaining
costs to complete were $2.4 million. On 20 September 20X4 Yling Co received a payment
from the customer of $1.74 million which was equal to the total of the amounts invoiced.
Yling Co calculates completion of the contract based on the percentage of the project
certified as completed. At 30 September 20X4, the percentage certified as completed to
date was 38%.
Revenue recognised to date (5m * 38%)= 1,900
Less amounts invoiced (1,740)
But in Kaplan way we should do; (5m * 38%)= 1,9000
Estimated cost+cost to date (2,4m + 1,6m)*38%=(1520)
Then contract asset =1520+1600-1740=1380
Can someone tell me how to calculate it and which one is correct?
Thanks beforehandAugust 19, 2021 at 10:03 pm #632264P2-D2Keymaster
- Topics: 4
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There is no correct way and either way is acceptable. We are waiting to hear from ACCA as to which one they would like to see within the exam itself.
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