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Propert reported amount

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Propert reported amount

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 months ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 28, 2022 at 11:56 am #656721
    alawi sayed
    Participant
    • Topics: 154
    • Replies: 168
    • ☆☆☆

    Hello Sir,

    In the following question there was an intention to sell the property but it was not sold so why the answer chosen was the fair value less cost to sell even though there was no indication of the qusetion to revalue the asset.why the answer not 36m.

    Thanks

    Q

    180 As at 30 September 20X3 Dune Co’s property in its statement of financial position was:
    Property at cost (useful life 15 years) $45 million
    Accumulated depreciation $6 million
    On 1 April 20X4 Dune Co decided to sell the property. The property is being marketed by a property agent at a
    price of $42 million, which was considered a reasonably achievable price at that date. The expected costs to sell
    have been agreed at $1 million. Recent market transactions suggest that actual selling prices achieved for this
    type of property in the current market conditions are 10% less than the price at which they are marketed.
    At 30 September 20X4 the property has not been sold.
    At what amount should the property be reported in Dune Co’s statement of financial position as at
    30 September 20X4?
    A $36 million
    B $37.5 million
    C $36.8 million
    D $42 million

    Answer

    180 C $36.8 million
    Selling price × 90% minus selling costs.

    May 31, 2022 at 8:44 pm #657002
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 6473
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    This falls under IFRS 5 and non-current assets held for sale. When the decision is made to sell the asset the non-current asset it transferred to current assets at the lower of the carrying value and the fair value less costs to sell.

    CV = 45 – 6 = 39
    FVLCTS = (42 x 90%) – 1 = 36.8 (LOWER)

    Hope that clears it up for you.

    Thanks

  • Author
    Posts
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