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IFRS 9 (Financial Assets Impairment)

This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by P2-D2.

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November 9, 2016 at 1:29 pm #348208
ahmed9729
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When we impair the financial assets by discounting the remaining maturity value (eg: 80% of 50,000) to Present Value, why do we take the effective interest rate for discounting and not the market rate for similar financial assets?
November 10, 2016 at 7:20 pm #348382
P2-D2
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Because the effective rate is specific to the asset that we own and the current market rate does not reflect the borrowing granted.
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November 12, 2016 at 8:38 pm #348638
ahmed9729
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But when we discount convertible bonds to get the debt and equity element, dont we use the market rate for that?
November 16, 2016 at 10:00 pm #349394
P2-D2
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Yes we use the market rate for similar debt without the conversion option. The accounting treatment of convertible debt and impairment of financial assets are different as they are treating different items in the accounts.
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