• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • CIMA Forums
  • Ask CIMA Tutor
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

June 2025 ACCA Exams

How was your exam? Comments & Instant poll >>

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for June 2025 exams.
Get your discount code >>

IFRS 5

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › IFRS 5

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 17, 2018 at 8:03 am #452380
    Johann
    Member
    • Topics: 12
    • Replies: 16
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    I have a query regarding recognition of impairment losses on classification of assets held for sale.

    The standard states that after initial recognition any subsequent fair value increases should be recognised up to the value of the total impairment losses recognised to date.

    I would like to confirm the following:

    Asset held under the revaluation model and there has been revaluations of lets say Eur 500 on this asset.
    Prior to initial classification as held for sale an impairment loss of eur 300.00 is recognised and setoff against revaluation surplus leaving a balance of eur 200.00 in revaluation.

    After initial classification a further impairment loss of lets say eur 800.00 (equivalent to costs to sell) is recognised.

    If a gain in fair value of Eur 1500.00 is later reported would this be recognised up to the total of impairment losses to date that is eur 300 + eur 800 = 1100.00 (recognise only Eur 1100) or recognise only the amount of impairment losses transferred to profit and loss that is in this case ignoring the eur 300.00 (which were transferred to revaluation surplus) and recognise only the eur 800.00 ?

    Thanks in advance for your assistance in solving our queries.

    regards

    Johann

    May 17, 2018 at 11:50 am #452407
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7163
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi Johann,

    I doubt that in reality we would classify an asset as held for sale and then see such a subsequent increase in value but if we did then the gain would be based on the cumulative impairment losses of 1,100.

    Thanks

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE 2025 Exams

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • Anastesia123 on MA Chapter 1 Questions Accounting for Management
  • John Moffat on MA Chapter 26 Questions Variance Analysis
  • acowtant on Changes in group structure – examples – ACCA SBR lectures
  • Samantha96 on The Statement of Financial Position and Income Statement (part a) – ACCA Financial Accounting (FA) lectures
  • Ejueyitsi-Toju on What is Assurance? – ACCA Audit and Assurance (AA)

Copyright © 2025 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in