I think that´s because the revaluation reserve was 4,400; the excess depreciation was 550; thus the balance was 4,400-550=3,850 that needs to be used up / removed because of the revaluation decrease / impairment. Thus, we debit by 3,850 the revaluation reserve but the value of the impairment was 4250. Then 4250-3850=400 impairment that goes to PL.
Hi Chris, Would you kindly clarify why you’re saying that all of $3,850 in the revaluation reserve is going to be used? And where are the entries for accumulated depreciation & depreciation?
olipop says
why isn’t the value in the accumulated depreciation account eliminated when revaluing down the PPE to $8m?
ALIABDULLAHI says
IS THERE ANY DIFFERENCE BETWEEN REVALUATION LOSS AND IMPAIRMENT?
MOHDSHAZEEB says
Hello Sir,
What about accumulated depreciation do we have to Dr Acc Depreciation and Cr PPE (Then only it will come to 8000) and;
Thank you for your lectures
praveenmasih says
Hi Chris,
Why are we debiting £3850 in OCI but not in Revaluation reserve??
lightbeetle200 says
Please I don’t understand where the excess depreciation is from at 10:22
JayGab says
Hello Chris,
Please why do we have to use up $3,850 in the reserve?
francihco says
I think that´s because the revaluation reserve was 4,400; the excess depreciation was 550; thus the balance was 4,400-550=3,850 that needs to be used up / removed because of the revaluation decrease / impairment. Thus, we debit by 3,850 the revaluation reserve but the value of the impairment was 4250. Then 4250-3850=400 impairment that goes to PL.
KamagobaS says
Hi Chris,
Would you kindly clarify why you’re saying that all of $3,850 in the revaluation reserve is going to be used?
And where are the entries for accumulated depreciation & depreciation?