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Sir, please tell me why we need to impair G/W 100%? what i telling us that G/W is impaired in the whole amount?
Thank you.
Regards,
Hi,
Once we have impaired the specific assets the rules are that goodwill is always impaired first before all other assets on a pro rata basis. As goodwill is just an accounting entry on the acquisition of the subsidiary then it only seems right that if the value of the CGU has fallen that goodwill suffer the hit first.
Thanks
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