In the following question, I did not quite catch 2 things: 1) why did they use FVOCI? (I thought it should be FVPL, as a default category) 2) in the year-end, why did they not add $500 transaction costs again while revaluing it to $45,000 by multiplying 4.5 with $10,000?
ABC purchased 10,000 shares on 1 September 20X4, making the election to use the alternative treatment under IFRS 9 Financial Instruments. The shares cost $3.50 each. Transaction costs associated with the purchase were $500. At 31 December 20X4, the shares are trading at $4.50 each. What is the gain to be recognized on these shares for the year ended 31 December 20X4?