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Defined benifit plan

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Defined benifit plan

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 24, 2018 at 8:07 pm #475668
    zkaay
    Participant
    • Topics: 212
    • Replies: 98
    • ☆☆☆

    Hi sir,

    Whats the differences in treatement in calculations between

    Pensions paid to former employees “at start of the year”

    And

    Pensions paid to former employees “during the year”

    Thanks

    September 24, 2018 at 9:38 pm #475671
    zkaay
    Participant
    • Topics: 212
    • Replies: 98
    • ☆☆☆

    2) for interest component

    Should we multiply the high quality bond % to only opening balance ?

    I saw in an example in bpp kit
    its multiplied to (opening balance – past service cost + contribution )

    Plz clarify this also

    September 25, 2018 at 7:58 pm #475722
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7171
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    There is no difference in treatment for the payments made to former employees. We will reduce the liability and reduce the asset.

    The interest rate is applied to the opening balances of both the asset and liability, to give the return on assets and interest expense respectively. If the past service cost arises at the start of the year then this must be unwound too, and so the interest rate is applied to this balance also to calculate the total interest cots in profit or loss.

    I’m not sure which example you are talking about and I’d not try to create a formula for this part of the syllabus. Use debits and credits and read the question carefully.

    Thanks

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