Forum Replies Created
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- November 24, 2014 at 12:47 pm #212649
ok.from bpp they used 6.2(1+8%)^5-1200=7910 .was wondering why 5 years was used
November 24, 2014 at 11:48 am #212635and also, are we supposed to convert it into nominal?
November 14, 2014 at 8:20 pm #210089thanks alot.
November 13, 2014 at 5:42 pm #209798ok.i get it the logic behind the calculation.and how do you get the value of debt(125.5)
November 13, 2014 at 3:54 pm #209664i did.just wanted to understand the comparison between market value of equity and the pv of cash flow
November 13, 2014 at 12:45 pm #209607thanks.il check.and is it advantageous for romage to demerge given the pv values?
November 13, 2014 at 6:30 am #209509please explain to me a bit on Tax credit on depreciation
November 8, 2014 at 2:38 am #208336thanks
November 7, 2014 at 4:11 pm #208255Got it.thanks.will you advise romage to seperately float the two division given their 15 yr PV and infinity one?(manufacturing infinity pv is 363.96,15yrs 268.83 while property sale division infinity pv is 365.66 and 15 yrs 239.57.And also i’d like to understand limitations of the calculation
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