Interactive BPP books for September 2026 exams, recommended by OpenTuition.
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ok.from bpp they used 6.2(1+8%)^5-1200=7910 .was wondering why 5 years was used
and also, are we supposed to convert it into nominal?
thanks alot.
ok.i get it the logic behind the calculation.and how do you get the value of debt(125.5)
i did.just wanted to understand the comparison between market value of equity and the pv of cash flow
thanks.il check.and is it advantageous for romage to demerge given the pv values?
please explain to me a bit on Tax credit on depreciation
thanks
Got it.thanks.will you advise romage to seperately float the two division given their 15 yr PV and infinity one?(manufacturing infinity pv is 363.96,15yrs 268.83 while property sale division infinity pv is 365.66 and 15 yrs 239.57.And also i’d like to understand limitations of the calculation
